Expectation value of a SUM using Dirac notation

In summary: This is important, because otherwise you may lose orthogonality or normalization.In summary, the conversation discussed the calculation of the expectation value of the Hamiltonian for a one-dimensional particle with a given wavefunction. The wavefunction was expressed as a sum of two components, each with its own energy eigenvalue. The question also asked which energy eigenvalue is the most likely outcome when measuring the energy of the particle once. The solution involved using bra-ket notation and the orthonormality of the wavefunctions to simplify the calculation. Taking complex conjugates was also emphasized to preserve orthogonality and normalization.
  • #1
rwooduk
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Homework Statement


Consider a one-dimensional particle subject to the Hamiltonian H with wavefunction [tex]\Psi(r,t) =\sum_{n=1}^{2} a_{n}\Psi _{n}(x)e^{\frac{-iE_{n}t}{\hbar}}[/tex]
where [tex]H\Psi _{n}(x)=E_{n}\Psi _{n}(x)[/tex] and where [tex]a_{1} = a_{2} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}[/tex]. Calculate the expectation value of the Hamiltonian with respect to [tex]\Psi (x,t)[/tex]? Which energy eigenvalue is the most likely outcome when we measure the energy of particle once?

Homework Equations


Given in the question.

The Attempt at a Solution


[tex]\Psi(r,t) =\sum_{n=1}^{2} a_{n}\Psi _{n}(x)e^{\frac{-iE_{n}t}{\hbar}}[/tex]

let [tex]\Psi_{1}(r,t) =a_{1}\Psi _{1}(x)e^{\frac{-iE_{1}t}{\hbar}}[/tex] and [tex]\Psi_{2}(r,t) =a_{2}\Psi _{2}(x)e^{\frac{-iE_{2}t}{\hbar}}[/tex]

therefore [tex]\left \langle H \right \rangle = \left \langle \Psi _{1}+ \Psi _{2}|H |\Psi _{1}+ \Psi _{2}\right \rangle[/tex]

which gives [tex]\left \langle H \right \rangle = (E_{1}+ E_{2}) \left \langle \Psi _{1}+ \Psi _{2}|\Psi _{1}+ \Psi _{2}\right \rangle[/tex]

but not sure what to do now? is this the best way to do this? the trouble I am having is using bra ket notation to work with a sum of wavefunctions.

any advice on this would really be appreciated!

thanks in advance
 
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  • #2
Are the wavefunctions orthonormal, if so what happens then?
 
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  • #3
Vagn said:
Are the wavefunctions orthonormal, if so what happens then?

[tex](E_{1}+ E_{2}) \left \langle \Psi _{1}+ \Psi _{2}|\Psi _{1}+ \Psi _{2}\right \rangle[/tex]

Yes, hence the bra ket term above would equal 1. However I need to get the [tex]a_{1} and a_{2}[/tex] out of there. we did a degenerate problem in bra and ket that gave:

[tex]a_{1}\left \langle \Psi _{1} |H| \Psi _{1} \right \rangle + a_{2}\left \langle \Psi _{2} |H| \Psi _{2} \right \rangle + a_{1}\left \langle \Psi _{1} |V| \Psi _{1} \right \rangle + a_{2}\left \langle \Psi _{2} |V| \Psi _{2} \right \rangle = Ea_{1}\left \langle \Psi _{1}|\Psi _{1} \right \rangle + Ea_{2}\left \langle \Psi _{1}|\Psi _{2} \right \rangle[/tex]

and was much easier to simplify, for example the exponential terms in my question will not go to 1, because there are 2 different energy levels. how do I deal with these extra terms in bra ket notation?

many thanks for the reply!
 
  • #4
rwooduk said:
let [tex]\Psi_{1}(r,t) =a_{1}\Psi _{1}(x)e^{\frac{-iE_{1}t}{\hbar}}[/tex] and [tex]\Psi_{2}(r,t) =a_{2}\Psi _{2}(x)e^{\frac{-iE_{2}t}{\hbar}}[/tex]
therefore [tex]\left \langle H \right \rangle = \left \langle \Psi _{1}+ \Psi _{2}|H |\Psi _{1}+ \Psi _{2}\right \rangle[/tex]
which gives $$\left \langle H \right \rangle = (E_{1}+ E_{2}) \left \langle \Psi _{1}+ \Psi _{2}|\Psi _{1}+ \Psi _{2}\right \rangle$$
By defining ##\Psi_{1}(r,t)## and then dropping the (r,t) you cause confusion between your ##\Psi_{1}(r,t)## and the eigenfunction of the Hamiltonian ##\Psi_{1}(x)##.

The "which gives" that follows is not correct:
$$H \left |\; a_1\Psi _{1}(x)e^{\frac{-iE_{1}t}{\hbar}}+ a_2\Psi _{2}(x)e^{\frac{-iE_{2}t}{\hbar}}\right \rangle = E_1 a_1 \left | \Psi _{1}(x) \right > e^{\frac{-iE_{1}t}{\hbar}} + E_2 a_2 \left | \Psi _{2}(x) \right > e^{\frac{-iE_{2}t}{\hbar}} $$
 
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  • #5
BvU said:
By defining ##\Psi_{1}(r,t)## and then dropping the (r,t) you cause confusion between your ##\Psi_{1}(r,t)## and the eigenfunction of the Hamiltonian ##\Psi_{1}(x)##.

The "which gives" that follows is not correct:
$$H \left |\; a_1\Psi _{1}(x)e^{\frac{-iE_{1}t}{\hbar}}+ a_2\Psi _{2}(x)e^{\frac{-iE_{2}t}{\hbar}}\right \rangle = E_1 a_1 \left | \Psi _{1}(x) \right > e^{\frac{-iE_{1}t}{\hbar}} + E_2 a_2 \left | \Psi _{2}(x) \right > e^{\frac{-iE_{2}t}{\hbar}} $$
Thanks, I didnt realize you could put everything in a ket like that, it's a little messy, but yes you answered my question. I will work through the problem and see where it goes.

Many thanks for all the help, really appreciated!
 
  • #6
Don't forget to take complex conjugates when you take factors like ##a_1\; e^{\frac{-iE_{1}t}{\hbar}}## outside the bra state
 
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1. What is the expectation value of a sum using Dirac notation?

The expectation value of a sum using Dirac notation is a mathematical concept used in quantum mechanics to calculate the average value of a physical observable, such as position or energy, for a given quantum state. It is represented by the symbol 〈A〉, where A is the operator corresponding to the observable.

2. How is the expectation value of a sum calculated using Dirac notation?

To calculate the expectation value of a sum using Dirac notation, we use the formula 〈A〉 = 〈ψ〉, where 〈ψ〉 is the inner product of the quantum state vector with the operator A. This formula is known as the Dirac notation for expectation value.

3. What does the expectation value of a sum represent in quantum mechanics?

In quantum mechanics, the expectation value of a sum represents the average value of a physical observable for a given quantum state. This means that if we were to measure the observable many times on different identically prepared quantum systems, the average of the measured values would be equal to the expectation value.

4. Can the expectation value of a sum be negative?

Yes, the expectation value of a sum can be negative. This can occur when the quantum state has a negative probability amplitude for a particular observable, resulting in a negative contribution to the overall expectation value. However, it is important to note that the expectation value itself is always a real number.

5. How is the expectation value of a sum related to the uncertainty principle?

The expectation value of a sum is related to the uncertainty principle in that it represents the most probable value of a physical observable for a given quantum state. This means that the uncertainty in the measurement of an observable is inversely proportional to the precision of the expectation value. Therefore, a smaller uncertainty in the measurement of one observable would result in a larger uncertainty in the measurement of the other observable, as stated by the uncertainty principle.

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