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Can a massless classical particle experience a nonzero Newton's second law force?
Dickfore produced a very interesting formula in https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=3333233&postcount=52 .
Is this generally accepted? Are there other expressions that work? Or are all acceptable expressions equivalent?
Dickfore produced a very interesting formula in https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=3333233&postcount=52 .
Is this generally accepted? Are there other expressions that work? Or are all acceptable expressions equivalent?