- #1
kelly0303
- 561
- 33
Hello! I am looking at the plot showing the ratio of cross sections of ##e^-e^+## to hadron, to ##e^-e^+## to ##\mu^+\mu^-##. Doing a first order approximation the data is in pretty good agreement (an error of about 10%). However when the first order correction to the QCD is added, coming from ##e^-e^+ \to q\bar{q}g##, the agreement is almost perfect. I am a bit confused about why, experimentally, one would use the ##e^-e^+ \to q\bar{q}g## for this kind of plot. Isn't the final product, in this case, made of 3 jets, compared to the case in which no gluon is produced in the final state? So can't one only use the events with only 2 jets in the final state and in that case the prediction from first order approximation will already be perfect compared to the experiment? (I don't know if one method is better than the other I am just wondering if that approach would be possible). Thank you!