- #1
Feynman's fan
- 14
- 0
I'd like to show that if [itex]\alpha>\frac{1}{2}[/itex] then [itex](x^2+y^2)^\alpha[/itex] is differentiable at [itex](0,0)[/itex].
The usual way is to show that the partial derivatives are continuous at [itex](0,0)[/itex].
Yet I am a little confused how to show that [itex]2x\alpha(x^2+y^2)^{\alpha-1}[/itex] is continuous at [itex](0,0)[/itex]. I have tried working it out by definition, yet it seems to be a mess.
Any hints are very appreciated!
The usual way is to show that the partial derivatives are continuous at [itex](0,0)[/itex].
Yet I am a little confused how to show that [itex]2x\alpha(x^2+y^2)^{\alpha-1}[/itex] is continuous at [itex](0,0)[/itex]. I have tried working it out by definition, yet it seems to be a mess.
Any hints are very appreciated!