- #1
AbigailM
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Preparing for classical prelim, just wondering if this solution is correct.
A particle with mass m and charge q moves in a uniform magnetic field [itex]\boldsymbol{B}=B\boldsymbol{\hat{z}}[/itex]. Write a Lagrangian describing the motion of the particle in the xy plane that gives the correct Lorentz-force equation of motion,
[itex]m\mathbf{a}=q\mathbf{v}\times\mathbf{B}[/itex]
L=T - U
[itex]\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{q}}\right)=\frac{\partial L}{\partial q}[/itex]
[itex]\boldsymbol{B}=\boldsymbol{\nabla \times A}[/itex]
[itex]\boldsymbol{E}=-\boldsymbol{\nabla}\phi +\frac{\partial \boldsymbol{A}}{\partial t}[/itex]
I'm going to start with the complete lorentz force and remove the electric potential from the lagrangian later.
[itex]\mathbf{F}=q(\mathbf{E}+\mathbf{v}\times\mathbf{B})[/itex]
[itex]\mathbf{F}=q(\mathbf{E}+\mathbf{v}\times (\boldsymbol{\nabla \times A}))[/itex]
[itex]\mathbf{F}=q(\mathbf{E}+\boldsymbol{\nabla} (\mathbf{v.A})-\boldsymbol{A}(\boldsymbol{\nabla . v}))[/itex]
[itex]\mathbf{F}=q(-\boldsymbol{\nabla}\phi+\frac{\partial\boldsymbol{A}}{\partial t}+\boldsymbol{\nabla}(\boldsymbol{v.A})-\boldsymbol{A}(\boldsymbol{\nabla v}))[/itex]
[itex]U=q(\phi -\boldsymbol{v.A})=q\phi-q\boldsymbol{v.A}[/itex]
We are only interested in the magnetic field so we'll ignore [itex]q\phi[/itex].
[itex]U=q\boldsymbol{v.A}[/itex]
[itex]L=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2} + q\boldsymbol{v.A} \hspace{2 mm}\mathbf{:Answer}[/itex]
As always thanks for the help!
Homework Statement
A particle with mass m and charge q moves in a uniform magnetic field [itex]\boldsymbol{B}=B\boldsymbol{\hat{z}}[/itex]. Write a Lagrangian describing the motion of the particle in the xy plane that gives the correct Lorentz-force equation of motion,
[itex]m\mathbf{a}=q\mathbf{v}\times\mathbf{B}[/itex]
Homework Equations
L=T - U
[itex]\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{q}}\right)=\frac{\partial L}{\partial q}[/itex]
[itex]\boldsymbol{B}=\boldsymbol{\nabla \times A}[/itex]
[itex]\boldsymbol{E}=-\boldsymbol{\nabla}\phi +\frac{\partial \boldsymbol{A}}{\partial t}[/itex]
The Attempt at a Solution
I'm going to start with the complete lorentz force and remove the electric potential from the lagrangian later.
[itex]\mathbf{F}=q(\mathbf{E}+\mathbf{v}\times\mathbf{B})[/itex]
[itex]\mathbf{F}=q(\mathbf{E}+\mathbf{v}\times (\boldsymbol{\nabla \times A}))[/itex]
[itex]\mathbf{F}=q(\mathbf{E}+\boldsymbol{\nabla} (\mathbf{v.A})-\boldsymbol{A}(\boldsymbol{\nabla . v}))[/itex]
[itex]\mathbf{F}=q(-\boldsymbol{\nabla}\phi+\frac{\partial\boldsymbol{A}}{\partial t}+\boldsymbol{\nabla}(\boldsymbol{v.A})-\boldsymbol{A}(\boldsymbol{\nabla v}))[/itex]
[itex]U=q(\phi -\boldsymbol{v.A})=q\phi-q\boldsymbol{v.A}[/itex]
We are only interested in the magnetic field so we'll ignore [itex]q\phi[/itex].
[itex]U=q\boldsymbol{v.A}[/itex]
[itex]L=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2} + q\boldsymbol{v.A} \hspace{2 mm}\mathbf{:Answer}[/itex]
As always thanks for the help!