- #1
Markus Kahn
- 112
- 14
- Homework Statement
- Prove that
$$\bar { \psi } ( x ) \gamma ^ { \mu } \partial _ { \mu } \psi ( x )$$
has even parity for ##\gamma^\mu## a set of matrices satisfying the Clifford algebra and ##\psi## a bispinor (an element that transforms under the ##(\frac{1}{2},0)\oplus (0,\frac{1}{2} )## representation of the Lorentz group) and ##\bar\psi=\psi^\dagger\gamma^0## the adjoint spinor.
- Relevant Equations
- Not entirely sure but I think if we write ##\psi## in terms of left/right-handed Wely spinors the parity operation is given by
##\psi(x)\longmapsto \psi'(x')=\gamma^0\psi(x).##
My idea was straight forward calculation:
$$\begin{align*}\bar { \psi }' ( x' ) \gamma ^ { \mu } \partial _ { \mu }' \psi ( x' ) &= \psi^\dagger\gamma^{0\dagger}\gamma^0\gamma^\mu \partial_\mu'\gamma^0\psi = \bar\psi\underbrace{\gamma^0\gamma^\mu\gamma^0}_{=\gamma^{\mu\dagger}=-\gamma^\mu} \partial_\mu'\psi = - \bar\psi\gamma^\mu\partial_\mu'\psi\\
&\overset{!}{=}\bar { \psi } ( x ) \gamma ^ { \mu } \partial _ { \mu } \psi ( x ) .\end{align*}$$
For this to be true the parity should therefore transform ##\partial_\mu\mapsto -\partial_\mu## which doesn't really make sense to me (I can't see why ##\partial_0## should pick up a sign under parity).. I found in a post here on physics formus (I sadly can't find the link right now) that ##\partial_\mu\mapsto\partial^\mu## under parity, which honestly confused me completely...
I assume that I'm doing something completely wrong, but I just don't really see what...
$$\begin{align*}\bar { \psi }' ( x' ) \gamma ^ { \mu } \partial _ { \mu }' \psi ( x' ) &= \psi^\dagger\gamma^{0\dagger}\gamma^0\gamma^\mu \partial_\mu'\gamma^0\psi = \bar\psi\underbrace{\gamma^0\gamma^\mu\gamma^0}_{=\gamma^{\mu\dagger}=-\gamma^\mu} \partial_\mu'\psi = - \bar\psi\gamma^\mu\partial_\mu'\psi\\
&\overset{!}{=}\bar { \psi } ( x ) \gamma ^ { \mu } \partial _ { \mu } \psi ( x ) .\end{align*}$$
For this to be true the parity should therefore transform ##\partial_\mu\mapsto -\partial_\mu## which doesn't really make sense to me (I can't see why ##\partial_0## should pick up a sign under parity).. I found in a post here on physics formus (I sadly can't find the link right now) that ##\partial_\mu\mapsto\partial^\mu## under parity, which honestly confused me completely...
I assume that I'm doing something completely wrong, but I just don't really see what...