Showing a sequence of functions is Cauchy/not Cauchy in L1

In summary: Thank you for that. I was able to get the norm values as 2 and log(n+1) respectively, which is 2-log(n+1) and since this goes to 0 as n goes to infinity, both sequences are Cauchy. Thank you for your help.In summary, the sequences of real valued functions (a) and (b) are Cauchy in L^{1}[0,1] with norm values of 2 and log(n+1) respectively, which goes to 0 as n goes to infinity.
  • #1
Euler2718
90
3

Homework Statement



Determine whether or not the following sequences of real valued functions are Cauchy in [itex]L^{1}[0,1][/itex]:

(a) [tex] f_{n}(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} & , \frac{1}{n+1}\leq x \leq 1 \\ 0 & , \text{ otherwise } \end{cases} [/tex]

(b) [tex]
f_{n}(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{x} & , \frac{1}{n+1}\leq x < 1 \\ 0 & , \text{ otherwise } \end{cases}
[/tex]

Homework Equations



[itex]\{ f_{n} \}_{n=1}^{\infty}[/itex] is Cauchy in [itex]L^{1}[0,1][/itex] iff for all [itex]\epsilon>0[/itex] there exists [itex]N\in\mathbb{N}[/itex] such that for [itex]n,m\geq N[/itex], [itex]||f_{n}-f_{m}||_{1} < \epsilon[/itex].

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
In both problems I think I should get to a step where I integrate [itex]\left|\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\right| [/itex] and [itex]\left|\frac{1}{x}\right| [/itex] over [itex][0,1][/itex] and get the norm values of [itex]2[/itex] and [itex]undefined[/itex] respectively, then I can conclude easily. Embarrassingly I don't know what [itex]f_{n}-f_{m}[/itex] is explicitly (in terms of its piecewise definition). I had first thought it to be zero for both cases, I don't think this is the case. Feel stupid asking this, but how do you subtract [itex]f_{n}[/itex] and [itex]f_{m}[/itex] in either case ?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Euler2718 said:

Homework Statement



Determine whether or not the following sequences of real valued functions are Cauchy in [itex]L^{1}[0,1][/itex]:

(a) [tex] f_{n}(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} & , \frac{1}{n+1}\leq x \leq 1 \\ 0 & , \text{ otherwise } \end{cases} [/tex]

(b) [tex]
f_{n}(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{x} & , \frac{1}{n+1}\leq x < 1 \\ 0 & , \text{ otherwise } \end{cases}
[/tex]

Homework Equations



[itex]\{ f_{n} \}_{n=1}^{\infty}[/itex] is Cauchy in [itex]L^{1}[0,1][/itex] iff for all [itex]\epsilon>0[/itex] there exists [itex]N\in\mathbb{N}[/itex] such that for [itex]n,m\geq N[/itex], [itex]||f_{n}-f_{m}||_{1} < \epsilon[/itex].

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
In both problems I think I should get to a step where I integrate [itex]\left|\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\right| [/itex] and [itex]\left|\frac{1}{x}\right| [/itex] over [itex][0,1][/itex] and get the norm values of [itex]2[/itex] and [itex]undefined[/itex] respectively, then I can conclude easily. Embarrassingly I don't know what [itex]f_{n}-f_{m}[/itex] is explicitly (in terms of its piecewise definition). I had first thought it to be zero for both cases, I don't think this is the case. Feel stupid asking this, but how do you subtract [itex]f_{n}[/itex] and [itex]f_{m}[/itex] in either case ?

If ##m > n##, in what ##x##-region are ##f_m(x)## and ##f_n(x)## the same? In what ##x##-region are they different? So, what is the formula for ##f_m(x) - f_n(x)## over ##0 \leq x \leq 1?##
 
  • #3
Your functions are defined piecewise, and vanish on [itex][0, \frac{1}{n+1})[/itex]. You shouldn't be getting any undefined integrals:
[tex]
\int_0^1 f_n(x)\,dx = \int_0^{1/(n+1)} 0\,dx + \int_{1/(n+1)}^1 \frac1x\,dx = \left[\log(x)\right]_{1/(n+1)}^1 = -\log(1/(n+1)),
[/tex] etc.

You can without loss of generality assume [itex]N \leq n < m[/itex].
 
  • #4
Ray Vickson said:
If ##m > n##, in what ##x##-region are ##f_m(x)## and ##f_n(x)## the same? In what ##x##-region are they different? So, what is the formula for ##f_m(x) - f_n(x)## over ##0 \leq x \leq 1?##

Using (a) as an example, if [itex]m>n[/itex], then [itex]f_{m}[/itex] and [itex]f_{n}[/itex] would be the same (both [itex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}[/itex] ) on [itex]\frac{1}{n+1} \leq x \leq 1[/itex] and different ([itex]f_{m}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}[/itex] but [itex]f_{n}=0[/itex]) on [itex] \frac{1}{m+1}\leq x < \frac{1}{n+1}[/itex]. So [itex] \displaystyle f_{m}-f_{n} = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} &, \frac{1}{m+1}\leq x < \frac{1}{n+1} \\ 0 &, \text{ otherwise } \end{cases} [/itex] ?

pasmith said:
Your functions are defined piecewise, and vanish on [itex][0, \frac{1}{n+1})[/itex]. You shouldn't be getting any undefined integrals:
[tex]
\int_0^1 f_n(x)\,dx = \int_0^{1/(n+1)} 0\,dx + \int_{1/(n+1)}^1 \frac1x\,dx = \left[\log(x)\right]_{1/(n+1)}^1 = -\log(1/(n+1)),
[/tex] etc.

You can without loss of generality assume [itex]N \leq n < m[/itex].

I see what you mean. I was not careful enough with the permissible [itex]x[/itex] values to notice this.
 

1. What does it mean for a sequence of functions to be Cauchy in L1?

A sequence of functions is considered to be Cauchy in L1 if, for any positive value ε, there exists a positive integer N such that for all values of n and m greater than or equal to N, the integral of the difference between the nth and mth functions is less than ε. Essentially, this means that as the sequence progresses, the functions become increasingly similar to each other in terms of their L1 norm.

2. How is the L1 norm used to determine if a sequence of functions is Cauchy or not?

The L1 norm, also known as the absolute norm, is used to measure the size of a function by summing the absolute values of its points. In the case of a sequence of functions, the L1 norm is used to determine if the difference between two functions in the sequence is decreasing over time. If the L1 norm of the difference between two functions approaches 0 as the sequence progresses, then the sequence is considered to be Cauchy in L1.

3. What are the conditions for a sequence of functions to be considered Cauchy in L1?

For a sequence of functions to be Cauchy in L1, there are two main conditions that must be met. First, the sequence must be pointwise Cauchy, meaning that for any given value of x, the sequence of function values at that point must converge as n approaches infinity. Second, the sequence must be uniformly bounded in L1, meaning that there exists a constant M such that the L1 norm of each function in the sequence is less than or equal to M.

4. How is proving that a sequence of functions is Cauchy in L1 different from proving that it is Cauchy in other norms?

Proving that a sequence of functions is Cauchy in L1 is typically more difficult than proving it is Cauchy in other norms, such as L2. This is because the L1 norm is more sensitive to outliers and larger values, making it harder to show that the difference between two functions in the sequence is approaching 0. Additionally, the conditions for being Cauchy in L1 are often more restrictive than those for other norms, making it more challenging to meet those conditions.

5. Can a sequence of functions be Cauchy in L1 but not converge to a limit function?

Yes, it is possible for a sequence of functions to be Cauchy in L1 but not converge to a limit function. This can occur if the sequence is not pointwise convergent, meaning that the values of the functions at each point do not converge, even though the L1 norm of the difference between two functions in the sequence approaches 0. In this case, the sequence is still considered to be Cauchy in L1, but it does not have a limit function in the L1 norm.

Similar threads

  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
1
Views
715
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
6
Views
974
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
1
Views
265
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
9
Views
917
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
17
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
575
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
4
Views
889
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
13
Views
2K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
5
Views
1K
Back
Top