- #1
mcastillo356
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- TL;DR Summary
- I've been wondering why ##0\leq{\theta}<2\pi## is equal to ##-\pi<\theta'\leq{\pi}##, but no way. I've been given the right answer, but still don't know how to move from one to another.
I've been given this answer: to move from negative to positive angles, ##-\theta'=2\pi-\theta##; and to move from positive to negative angles, ##\theta'=\theta-2\pi##. But my question is if there is any way to calculate it in a sequence of inequalities' steps.
If I am being cumbersome, forgive me.
Greetings
If I am being cumbersome, forgive me.
Greetings