This is review for me, but something is going awry

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In summary: There are TWO linearly independent homogeneous solutions. One of them is 3/2*exp(-t), the other is 0.
  • #1
Jamin2112
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Homework Statement



Find the solution of the following initial value problems:

(a) y'' - 2y' + 5y = 0, y(π/2)=0, y'(π/2)=0

Homework Equations



Just know to "guess" y=Cert, how to bring in Euler's formula, and that sin(x) is odd while cos(x) is even

The Attempt at a Solution



Guess: y= ert

-----> r2ert - 2rert + 5ert = 0
-----> r2 - 2r + 5 = 0
-----> (r-1)2 = -5 + 1
-----> r - 1 = +/- √-4
-----> r = 1 +/- 2i
-----> y = et( C1(cos2t+isin2t) + C2(cos(-2t)+isin(-2t)) )
-----> y = et( C1cos2t + C1sin2t - C2cos2t + C2isin2t)
-----> y = et(K1cos2t + K2sin2t), where K1, K2 are new constants to represent (C1 - C2), (iC1 + iC2)But then come the initial conditions!

0 = eπ/2K1(-1)
2 = K1eπ/2(-1)+ 2K2eπ/2(-1)

It just seems like a ghey problem if K1 disappears
 
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  • #2
Looks good so far. Did you mean y'(pi/2)=2? What's so hard about the initial conditions? What are sin(pi) and cos(pi)?
 
  • #3
Oh, and another one.

y'' + 2y' + y = 3e-t

I'll find the homogenous solution first. The characteristic polynomial is r2 + 2r + 1 = 0 -----> r = -1, a repeated root ----> The homogenous solution is (C1 + C2t)e-t.

Now I'll guess a second general solution, C3e-t.

------> C3et - 2C3e-t + C3e-t = 3e-t
------> 0 = 0.

Fork! So is the homogeneous solution all? Just for the heck of it, I tried y(t)=(At2 + Bt + C)e-t, but to no avail; there doesn't seem to be a polynomial that can be multiplied by e-t without my getting 0=0.

Where should I go from here?
 
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  • #4
There is an inhomogeneous solution of the form (At^2+Bt+C)*exp(-t). You just missed it.
 
  • #5
Dick said:
Looks good so far. Did you mean y'(pi/2)=2? What's so hard about the initial conditions? What are sin(pi) and cos(pi)?

Well, yeah.

y(t) = C1etcos2t + C2etsin2t -----> y'(t) = et(-C12sin2t + C1cos2t + 2C2cost + C2sin2t).

So,
0 = C1eπ/2cos(π) + C2eπ/2sin(π)
2 = -2C1eπ/2sin(π) + C1eπ/2cos(π) + 2C2eπ/2cos(π) + C2eπ/2sin(π)

----->

2 = -C2eπ/2


----> y(t) = -e-π/2etcos2t
 
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  • #6
Dick said:
There is an inhomogeneous solution of the form (At^2+Bt+C)*exp(-t). You just missed it.

Allow me to demonstrate.

y(t) = At2e-t + Bte-t + Ce-t
----> y'(t)= -At2e-t + 2Ate-t -Bte-t + Be-t - Ce-t

----> y''(t)= At2e-t - 2Ate-t - 2Ate-t + 2Ae-t + Bte-t -Be-t - Be-t + Ce-t

-----> At2e-t - 2Ate-t - 2Ate-t + 2Ae-t + Bte-t -Be-t - Be-t + Ce-t + 2*[ -At2e-t + 2Ate-t -Bte-t + Be-t - Ce-t ] + At2e-t + Bte-t + Ce-t = 3e-t

Everything on the left side cancels out!
 
  • #7
Jamin2112 said:
Well, yeah.

y(t) = C1etcos2t + C2etsin2t -----> y'(t) = et(-C12sin2t + C1cos2t + 2C2cost + C2sin2t).

So,
0 = C1eπ/2cos(π) + C2eπ/2sin(π)
2 = -2C1eπ/2sin(π) + C1eπ/2cos(π) + 2C2eπ/2cos(π) + C2eπ/2sin(π)

----->

2 = -C2eπ/2


----> y(t) = -e-π/2etcos2t

Yes, what's wrong or 'ghey' about that?
 
  • #8
Dick said:
Yes, what's wrong or 'ghey' about that?

I'm used to easy system of equations in these problems.

Something like

0 = C1 + C2
2 = 3C1 - C2,

not something with eπ/2
 
  • #9
Jamin2112 said:
Allow me to demonstrate.

y(t) = At2e-t + Bte-t + Ce-t
----> y'(t)= -At2e-t + 2Ate-t -Bte-t + Be-t - Ce-t

----> y''(t)= At2e-t - 2Ate-t - 2Ate-t + 2Ae-t + Bte-t -Be-t - Be-t + Ce-t

-----> At2e-t - 2Ate-t - 2Ate-t + 2Ae-t + Bte-t -Be-t - Be-t + Ce-t + 2*[ -At2e-t + 2Ate-t -Bte-t + Be-t - Ce-t ] + At2e-t + Bte-t + Ce-t = 3e-t

Everything on the left side cancels out!

Look, you can forget about the B and C parts. You should KNOW they are going to cancel. They are part of the homogenous solution. Are you really going to make me check that? I will ask you, what canceled the 2*A*exp(-t)?
 
  • #10
Jamin2112 said:
I'm used to easy system of equations in these problems.

Something like

0 = C1 + C2
2 = 3C1 - C2,

not something with eπ/2

exp(pi/2) is just another constant. Doesn't make it any harder than a constant like '3'.
 
  • #11
Dick said:
Look, you can forget about the B and C parts. You should KNOW they are going to cancel. They are part of the homogenous solution. Are you really going to make me check that? I will ask you, what canceled the 2*A*exp(-t)?

Let us see.

y(t) = At2e-t,
y'(t) = -At2e-t + 2Ate-t,
y''(t)=At2e-t - 2Ate-t - 2Ate-t + 2Ae-t

------------>

At2e-t - 2Ate-t - 2Ate-t + 2Ae-t -2At2e-t + 4Ate-t + At2e-t = 3e-t


----------> A = 3/2

I think I finally got it. What a ghey problem.

WAIT! Now I have the homogeneous solution, in which the coefficients are undetermined, PLUS one another e-t with a determined coefficient. How does that work? What was the point if (3/2 + C1) could just be merged into a new constant?
 
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  • #12
Jamin2112 said:
Let us see.

y(t) = At2e-t,
y'(t) = -At2e-t + 2Ate-t,
y''(t)=At2e-t - 2Ate-t - 2Ate-t + 2Ae-t

------------>

At2e-t - 2Ate-t - 2Ate-t + 2Ae-t -2At2e-t + 4Ate-t + At2e-t = 3e-t


----------> A = 3/2

I think I finally got it. What a ghey problem.

WAIT! Now I have the homogeneous solution, in which the coefficients are undetermined, PLUS one another e-t with a determined coefficient. How does that work? What was the point if (3/2 + C1) could just be merged into a new constant?

I would stop saying 'ghey'. I don't think it's universally appreciated. You can't absorb the inhomogeneous solution into the homogeneous solution by adjusting a constant. You are just being sloppy again.
 

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