- #1
_PJ_
- 230
- 15
I was thinking about the concept of Unification at extreme energies, and how the symmetry breaking / condensation as a result of universal expansion resolves the necessary fields for our universe.
As such, it stands to reason to consider a Hot Big Bang as candidate for the arena to allow for the scenario of such unification.
My question is that at some point in such a Hot Unified universe, 'before' the condensation/symmetry breaking to result in a Higgs field, there were no 'massive' particles. Weak and Electroweak fields require much lower energies to condense, so for whatever form the energy of the universe consisted of, there was no temporal metric.
There was no distinction between past, present or future and nothing by which 'time' could be discerned excluding the expansion of the universe itself - which would mean the universe would continue in this state 'forever' (though forever would not exist as a concept).
Therefore, it seemed to indicate that there could be no complete unification, some quantity must 'always' have existed distinct from others so as to provide a 'frame of reference' from which the passage of time could be measured, this difference could be attributed to the quantum fluctuations?
Does this make sense? Is it accurate? Am I missing something? Could the expansion of the universe instead actually form a 'clock'?
As such, it stands to reason to consider a Hot Big Bang as candidate for the arena to allow for the scenario of such unification.
My question is that at some point in such a Hot Unified universe, 'before' the condensation/symmetry breaking to result in a Higgs field, there were no 'massive' particles. Weak and Electroweak fields require much lower energies to condense, so for whatever form the energy of the universe consisted of, there was no temporal metric.
There was no distinction between past, present or future and nothing by which 'time' could be discerned excluding the expansion of the universe itself - which would mean the universe would continue in this state 'forever' (though forever would not exist as a concept).
Therefore, it seemed to indicate that there could be no complete unification, some quantity must 'always' have existed distinct from others so as to provide a 'frame of reference' from which the passage of time could be measured, this difference could be attributed to the quantum fluctuations?
Does this make sense? Is it accurate? Am I missing something? Could the expansion of the universe instead actually form a 'clock'?