- #1
Char. Limit
Gold Member
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Just out of curiosity, I've been looking into the Laplace transform and noticed that...
[tex]\mathcal{L}(sin(t))=\frac{1}{s^2+1}=\frac{d}{ds}(tan^{-1}(s))[/tex]
So, I was wondering if the Laplace transform of the sinc function was the inverse tangent function. In LaTEX...
[tex]\mathcal{L}(sinc(t))=tan^{-1}(s)[/tex]
In short, is the above a true statement?
[tex]\mathcal{L}(sin(t))=\frac{1}{s^2+1}=\frac{d}{ds}(tan^{-1}(s))[/tex]
So, I was wondering if the Laplace transform of the sinc function was the inverse tangent function. In LaTEX...
[tex]\mathcal{L}(sinc(t))=tan^{-1}(s)[/tex]
In short, is the above a true statement?