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Jamie Harper
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So - this may sound like an easily answered question - but with push-back on my part I hope I can get to the real crux of what I'm asking, in any replies you might be kind enough to provide. I hope the answer is not, eventually, simple.
The crux of my issue is this:
Why do we believe gravity is a weak-force?
Assumption/starting-point: that gravity is considered by physicists to be a "weak" (very weak) force.
My arguments against this are:
a) The gravity of all atoms - I believe - must effect every other atom in existence.
i.e. the atoms at one end of the universe must surely have a gravitational effect on every atom at the other end of the universe, and removing "ends": every atom must effect, gravitationally, every other atom in existence.
Furthermore; the atoms in every molecule must exert gravity on every other molecule in existence. (lessening as a square of the distance).
The problem with proving this is that we just don't have any means (yet) to measure this.
But surely it must be true (is my argument)?
i.e. until we can measure the impact of one atom's gravity on another atom - and vice versa - (which as I understand it, is not possible because it's just way, way, way (way**32) too small for us to measure) we will never know what strength gravity has.
b) Since light can travel effectively without limit (we can see the light as created shortly after the big bang via Europe's Planck telescope) - surely gravity must also have no limit.
The significance of this is that if we consider that momentum is the resulting force from the atoms of an object moving through the EM/gravitational fields of all other atoms in existence (i.e. in this universe) [which struck me watching this Feynman talk , then surely all gravities impacting on all atoms in an object [arising from it's existence and therefore its default distance from all other atoms in existence] from must be measured and calculated before we can ascertain the "strength" of the gravitational forces at work.
I'm not explaining this very well, and/or maybe I'm wrong in the initial assumption (that physicists think gravity is a weak force) but is it not "new thinking" to say that all atoms must exert gravity on all other atoms in existence? Is it already known/believed to be correct that gravity will end up being considered a strong force (an unbelievably strong force, with similarly infinite reach to light) but with almost limitless "dilution" owing to its effectively infinite reach?
I guess I can rephrase to:
Surely gravity is actually the stronger force than the other forces we know about; because the other forces we know about are limited to local effects; whereas gravity (and EM fields/field effects) have a reach that extends from one "end" of our universe to the opposite end, impacting every thing in between, in some tiny, unmeasurable way?
Surely, looking at things in a universe-encompassing way: gravity is the one strong force we know about?
Apologies if this is in the wrong place, or is easily answered. I thank you all so, so much for even entering into conversation with me about this, as an outsider/a newbie here.
Namaste :)
The crux of my issue is this:
Why do we believe gravity is a weak-force?
Assumption/starting-point: that gravity is considered by physicists to be a "weak" (very weak) force.
My arguments against this are:
a) The gravity of all atoms - I believe - must effect every other atom in existence.
i.e. the atoms at one end of the universe must surely have a gravitational effect on every atom at the other end of the universe, and removing "ends": every atom must effect, gravitationally, every other atom in existence.
Furthermore; the atoms in every molecule must exert gravity on every other molecule in existence. (lessening as a square of the distance).
The problem with proving this is that we just don't have any means (yet) to measure this.
But surely it must be true (is my argument)?
i.e. until we can measure the impact of one atom's gravity on another atom - and vice versa - (which as I understand it, is not possible because it's just way, way, way (way**32) too small for us to measure) we will never know what strength gravity has.
b) Since light can travel effectively without limit (we can see the light as created shortly after the big bang via Europe's Planck telescope) - surely gravity must also have no limit.
The significance of this is that if we consider that momentum is the resulting force from the atoms of an object moving through the EM/gravitational fields of all other atoms in existence (i.e. in this universe) [which struck me watching this Feynman talk , then surely all gravities impacting on all atoms in an object [arising from it's existence and therefore its default distance from all other atoms in existence] from must be measured and calculated before we can ascertain the "strength" of the gravitational forces at work.
I'm not explaining this very well, and/or maybe I'm wrong in the initial assumption (that physicists think gravity is a weak force) but is it not "new thinking" to say that all atoms must exert gravity on all other atoms in existence? Is it already known/believed to be correct that gravity will end up being considered a strong force (an unbelievably strong force, with similarly infinite reach to light) but with almost limitless "dilution" owing to its effectively infinite reach?
I guess I can rephrase to:
Surely gravity is actually the stronger force than the other forces we know about; because the other forces we know about are limited to local effects; whereas gravity (and EM fields/field effects) have a reach that extends from one "end" of our universe to the opposite end, impacting every thing in between, in some tiny, unmeasurable way?
Surely, looking at things in a universe-encompassing way: gravity is the one strong force we know about?
Apologies if this is in the wrong place, or is easily answered. I thank you all so, so much for even entering into conversation with me about this, as an outsider/a newbie here.
Namaste :)