Recent content by Botttom

Ok thank you

Hello, In most of the papers like http://eprints.qut.edu.au/4763/1/4763.pdf one sees the raman spectra of crystals or molecules and the peaks are not further described (if they are stokes or antistokes). Do all the Peaks belong to the Anti-stokes-lines? And if it is so, why don't we see any...

Ok, thanks

Hey, The helmholtz energy is supposed to have a minimum when the entropy has a maximum value. Does anyone knows the derivation for this statement?

But the helmholtz energy should still be continuous at T_c like the gibbs energy, right?

No, i just assume that the magnetization is small enough in the normal state, because the sample is not diamagnetic in normal state. The diamagnetism is only seen in the superconducting state with $$M=H,$$ and hence can not be assumed to be small enough to be neglected

Hello, I consider an ideal superconductor with the gibbs-energy $$ d G=-SdT + VdP - \mu_0 M V dH$$ and helmholtz energy $$ dF = -SdT -P dV + \mu_0 V H dM$$ Assuming, that in the normal state the magnetization is too small, so that G_n(H) = G_n(H=0) and at the transition point H_c the...

oh you mean $${\partial r\over {\partial x}} = {x \over r} = {r \cos(\theta) \over {r}} $$

Well , yes the part with the time derivative is obvious. The other part is not. Why would there be a cosine(theta) ?

Yes, but the general solution is not known in this case

The question is to show, that if \phi solves the equation {1\over{c^2}} {\partial^2 ( r \phi) \over{\partial t^2}} = {\partial^2 (r \phi) \over{\partial r^2}} than so should every partial derivative $$\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial x }, \frac{\partial\phi}{\partial y }...

Do you mean product rule in this formula>? {1\over{c^2}} {\partial^2 ( r \phi) \over{\partial t^2}} = {\partial^2 (r \phi) \over{\partial r^2}} .

I would like to show, that if \phi is a solution to the equation than each partial derivative of \phi is also a solution. I am failing to show that just by plugging the derivative in. How can i do that?

Yes, this works! Is it possible to find solutions using the second formula? Thanks!

Hello! The wave equation given: {1\over{c^2}} {\partial^2 \phi\over{\partial t^2}} = \Delta \phi with r = \sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2} needs to be rearranged, so that {1\over{c^2}} {\partial^2 ( r \phi) \over{\partial t^2}} = {\partial^2 (r \phi) \over{\partial r^2}} . Are there any tricks to obtain...