In my Abstract Algebra course, it was said that if
E := \frac{\mathbb{Z}_{3}[X]}{(X^2 + X + 2)}.
The basis of E over \mathbb{Z}_{3} is equal to [1,\bar{X}].
But this, honestly, doesn't really make sense to me. Why should \bar{X} be in the basis without it containing any other \bar{X}^n...