Recent content by CNMD

My understanding was that from 0-0.5 and 1.5-2, ψ(x)=0 (for both cases), so the second derivative would be 0 as well, no? And within 0.5-1.5 it is just a constant 1/√a so that derivative is also 0.

I have a quantum problem that I can't seem to figure out: There's an electron in a 1-D rigid box of length 2A but it is known to reside in a central segment of 1A with uniform probability of residing within this segment. There are two possible wavefunctions: one with constant phase...