From the Born Approximation, you can relate the potential to the scattering amplitude. So it follows that a potential can be derived from the scattering amplitude from Delbruck scattering. I tried to solve this myself, and get a scattering amplitude with only angular dependence, no momentum...
The sigma tensor composed of the commutator of gamma matrices is said to be able to represent any anti-symmetric tensor.
\sigma_{\mu\nu} = i/2 [\gamma_\mu,\gamma_\nu]
However, it is not clear how one can arrive at something like the electromagnetic tensor.
F_{\mu\nu} = a \bar{\psi}...
Looking to calculate the amplitude and cross section of the process: electron + positron to photon + Z boson.
Basically the annihilation resulting in Z + gamma rather than gamma +gamma.
My question is mainly about how to deal with the polarization states with the Z boson, since there are 3 and...
Yes, of course they are acting on different spaces in most cases. Was trying to keep things very generalized in an attempt to "rescue" invariance, but I think that may be overkill.
And, Psi is indeed a dirac spinor.
My question still remains on what to do about T being non-unitary.
As ##A_\mu...
You see in the literature that the vector potentials in a gauge covariant derivative transform like:
A_\mu \rightarrow T A_\mu T^{-1} + i(\partial_\mu T) T^{-1}
Where T is not necessarily unitary. (In the case that it is ##T^{-1} = T^\dagger##)
My question is then if T is not unitary, how is...
ok i think i have solid reasoning here:
Suppose ##C^{ij} = M^{ij} + N^{ij}##
From symmetry and antisymmetry we have:
##\epsilon_{ijkl} C^{ij}C^{kl} = 0##
Also if you foil the CC product in terms of M and N you get ##C^{ij}C^{kl} = M^{ij}M^{kl} + N^{ij}N^{kl} + M^{ij}N^{kl} + N^{ij}M^{kl}##...
ep_{ijkl} M^{ij} N^{kl} + ep_{ijkl}N^{ij} M^{kl}
The second term can be rewritten with indices swapped
ep_{klij} N^{kl}M^{ij}
Shuffle indices around in epsilon
ep{klij} = ep{ijkl}
Therefore the expression becomes
2ep_{ijkl}M^{ij}N^{kl}
Not zero.
What is wrong here?
Okay so the Lagrangian behavior is straightforward then. What about the Lagrangian density? Where rho is the mass density of a particle cloud.
$$ \mathcal{L} = -\rho(y) \sqrt{\dot{y}_\mu \dot{y}^\mu} - A_\mu J^\mu -\frac{1}{4} F_{\rho\sigma} F^{\rho\sigma}$$
$$ \frac{\partial...
The last paragraph is basically asking, how do I write the full Lagrangian of a massive charged particle in an electromagnetic field?
From what you've said, I gathered that it would be written like:
$$ L = -m\sqrt{\dot{y}_\mu \dot{y}^\mu} - q A_\mu (y) \dot{y}^\mu - \frac{1}{4} \int d^3 x...
How would you unify the two Lagrangians you see in electrodynamics?
Namely the field Lagrangian:
Lem = -1/4 Fμν Fμν - Aμ Jμ
and the particle Lagrangian:
Lp = -m/γ - q Aμ vμ
The latter here gives you the Lorentz force equation.
fμ = q Fμν vν
It seems the terms - q Aμ vμ and - Aμ Jμ account for...
Maybe I'm not explaining it right. I swear I have seen this done before. Here is the process:
Start with this generic form:
R_{\mu\nu} - \frac{1}{2} R g_{\mu\nu} \pm \Lambda g_{\mu\nu} = \frac{8 \pi G}{c^4} T_{\mu\nu}
Take the trace to get:
-R \pm 4\Lambda = \frac{8 \pi G}{c^4} T
Take the...