Hi everyone,
If B^A is the set of functions mapping from A \rightarrow B = \{ 0, 1 \}, prove that |B^A| = |P(A)|, where P(A) is the power set of A.
Is it as simple as letting the mapping from B to A be denoted by \phi and defining a_1, a_2 \in A, a_1 \ne a_2 such that \phi (a_1) = 0 and...