Recent content by gnardog777

hey, can someone explain to me how mathematicians found out that for second order homogenous ODEs with constant coefficents, when for the auxiliary equation, b^2 - 4ac = 0, xe^(rx) is another general solution? I've seen it proven, but I don't understand why **EDIT:*** I just realized I may...

I understood the first paragraph, but you completely lost me on the second one. I can't wait until I go to college.

Yeah, I understand that, I'm just trying to understand what's going on conceptually. You said that particles need to spin around twice to get around once. Would that apply to half-spin particles such as fermions? Also, since bosons have a whole-spin, would they only need to spin around once...

Thanks, dude. Unfortunately, I don't even completely understand what angular momentum is :( Sometimes I feel that I jump too far ahead into concepts that I can't completely understand, due to the fact that I lack the prerequisite knowledge required in order to fully understand the material...

I think I understand the gist of it. Is it a property that exhibits properties of angular momentum, without actually spinning, because it isn't made of anything else as far as we know, and has no inner structure?