A ferromagnetic material may be paramagnetic above the Curie temperature, but it will still align with the application of a strong enough external magnetic field. Right? This thread brought this question to my mind...
Hi everyone,
I'm thinking about doing a computer science/physics double major. I'm interested in computational physics, so I think it'd be a good match.
So I guess I have two questions...
1. If I wanted to do computational physics, would a computer science/math double major be a good...
I'm looking at this equation for gravitational time dilation:
T = \frac{T_0}{\sqrt{1 - (2GM / rc^2)}}
I understand the relation of time dilation and velocity, and how v must be less than c, but I don't understand what exactly is implied here. At a certain point, M could be great...
So, resistivity goes like \rho = R \frac{A}{l} (where A = cross sectional area, l = length)
I solved for resistance and got R = \rho \frac{l}{A}
If R = \rho \frac{l}{A} = \frac{V}{I} would the current correspond to the ampacity of the material? Or, if you were to replace R in the first...