I have a linear transformation P:z→z
I want to show the Kernel (p) is a subset of the kernel (P ° P)
I know that the composite function is defined by (P ° P)(x)=P(P(x))
Where do I begin with this?
To find ker(P) I would do P(x)=0 but I am not sure how I would do this here.
What steps...
for "vector x is in the kernel of A" ker(A)={x belongs to X: T(x)=0}
I am not sure about the other one.
Great question by the way, really forcing me to think and understand.
ok cool. I am starting to understand a little better. How do you know the kernel A is the same as the set of eigenvectors with eigenvalue 0? Where do I go from here?
I am doing maths.I find the course very well except for linear stuff. I can not picture things. Yeah if you square it you get itself again. we have only just touched on it. I am kind of going ahead of the course.
Lets say you have a linear transformation P. The eigenvalues of the matrices are 0,1 and 2.
How would you show that ker P belongs to the eigenspace corresponding to 0?
So you have an eigenvalue 0. Let A be the 3X3 matrix.
I was thinking of doing something like Ax=λx and substitute 0 for λ...
I honestly can not see the answer. Could you give me an example if you do not mind? It does not have to be this specific problem. maybe I am looking at the problem from a different angle if it is meant to be that obvious.
is it
0.5 0 -0.5
0 1 0
-0.5 0 0.5
How do you show that a linear transformation is idempotent?
T:R^3 to R^3 T (x y z)^T = (0.5 (x-z) , y, 0.5 (z-x))
I have no idea where to begin. I know a few facts about idempotent properties e.g such as their eigenvalues are...