Hey guys~
I was looking for a way to derive a formula for fn (the nth term in the fibonacci sequence). While looking for this, I came across a potential solution using the residue theorem.
Using the generating function Ʃk≥0 fnzn, find the identity for fn.
The problem looks like the right...
Hi Guys~
I was wondering if anyone had any suggestions for applications of the Kelvin-Stokes Theorem. Recall that the Kelvin-Stokes Theorem states: http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/0/4/4/04402b2d910114267bffa0e030445af6.png
(Check Wikipedia for further explanation)
Obviously one could...
Where did that y(x) come from?
And are you saying that we let y = y(x)dy/dx)dx?
P.S. I was simply following the "Introduction to differential equations" video, under calculus. Found here: http://www.hippocampus.org/Calculus%20%26%20Advanced%20Math;jsessionid=BAEE0BB1E88F4A594768EEBE4D8FC1EA
Hello all~
Given the equation:
dy/dx = (x/y)
I know we would initially go to:
∫dy =∫ (x/y) dx
then too:
∫(y)(dy) = ∫x dx
Until arriving at:
(y2/2) + C1 = (x2/2) + C2
(y2) - (x2) = C
My question is:
Where does the dy disappear to in step 4? Where the anti-derivative is taken...
When is dy/dx allowed to be treated as a fraction apposed to an operator?
What properties of the integral symbol allows a function (y prime) to be transformed back to f(x)?