Hello!
I am having problems with the inverse function theorem.
In some books it says to be locally inversible: first C1, 2nd Jacobian determinant different from 0
And I saw some books say to be locally inversible, it suffices to change the 2NDto "F'(a) is bijective"..
How could these two be...
Hello!
Could anybody give me an idea about this proof?
knowing f_{i}:X\rightarrowR i=1,2
to show whether f_{3}=min{f_{1},f_{2}} is continuous!
Thanks in advance,
Regards
First, thanks very much indeed..
but, yes, honestly, not easy for me, I have to think about it...
how to interpret this by saying the derivative of the signed measure does not exsit??
Could anyone help to give an example
where in the same proba space, x and y have each the density function, while the joint density function does not exist?
Thanks in advance,
Best regards
yes, that is what I am trying to do, however, it is strange that, some theorem in the book "Analysis and Mathematical physics" says the 2nd holds in C[a,b] wrt the second distance function, I am now quite confused...This is an original question from the book real analysis with economic applications.
Continuously differentiable Function C^1
{} \left[0,1\right] is complete with respect to the metric space
D_\infty{}{f,g}=sup{\left|f(t)-g(t)\right|}+sup{\left|f^1{}(t)-g^1{}(t)\right|}
but not in the d_\infty{}{f,g}=sup{\left|f(t)-g(t)\right|}
Thanks for the helps in advance.
Regards...
BI