Recent content by soul

Why do we do that? I couldn't understand the reason.

Hi everyone, Assume that we have an electron in the Coulomb field of a proton, whose wave function is specified. How can I find the probability of finding this electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom? Thank you.

I tried to use the eigenvalue of the operators but I couldn't get the result. Can anyone help me to understand this relationship? Thank you.

Hi everyone, Question In metals, for homogeneous nucleation, activation free energy required for the formation of a stable nucleus are different when the nucleus are considered as a cube and considered as a sphere and the relation between them is energy for cube is almost double of the...

You're welcome.

First of all, you should upload your image to an image hosting website like http://tinypic.com/". (This is a fast and good one). After you upload, it gives some links to you for different purposes, choose "direct link for layouts". Then, click the "insert image" button on your tool bar and paste...

I have put it below the heading of "relevant equations", but I guess there is a problem about seeing it so I attached it to the problem. Thanks for your warning.

Hi everyone, Homework Statement A lead–tin alloy of composition 30 wt% Sn–70 wt% Pb is slowly heated from a temperature of 150 C (300F). (a) At what temperature does the first liquid phase form? (b) What is the composition of this liquid phase? (c) At what temperature does...

Student111, thanks for your answer, but I guess H has 2 values if H is hermitian, if it isn't, it has 4?

For the p*x take the derivative of the x*wave function's conjugate and multiply it with the wave function itself and take the integral.

You should use the energy formula for the infinite-square well to obtain energy emitted, then I think you can use this energy in the formula of the photon and get the wavelength. Bohr energy equation can be used to find the energy for the hydrogen atom.

As far as I know so far you did right. My suggestion for the further is that you can calculate <xp> and <px> separately ans sum them up. To do so, apply the operators with their usual orders and take their integral. I know, it seems a bit tidious but this is the only way that I think.

Also, can I say that since H^4 = 1, then one eigenvalue of it is 1 and if H were not a Hermitian operator, one eigenvalue would be i, since H^2 = -1 or 1?

Isn't it H*\Psi = E * \Psi?

Hi, everyone! While I was studying for my midterm, I encountered this question. ------ Consider the hermitian operator H that has the property that H4 = 1 What are the eigenvalues of the operator H? What are the eigenvalues if H is not restricted to being Hermitian? ------ What I am...