I had an argument at my university about it, since experiments at LHC aren't 100% confirmed.
I mean, gauge theories are.. theories and Goldstone bosons are theorems.
Someone share some light plese?
So I'm just having a bad night about Lagrangian and Hamiltonian mechanics and I was deriving them all over again and just wanted to try to differenciate the derivation with respect to velocity instead of x (just for fun)
But I kind of struggled with the math and I just want to get this right...
i'm so stupid.. i deserve to go start college again.. Thanks a lot man!(honestly, i didnt know you could combine two same series into one, i was just treating them as a normal number and they were cancelling each other or getting a sigma squared, lol)
I uploaded it.
By the way, he said something about "factoring sums out" what is that supposed to mean? This is the first time I've ever encountered something like this and i have taken up to differential equations regarding my math level.
I don't understand why the lorentz factor is 1/[1-(v2/c2)]1/2
http://www.softcom.net/users/greebo/dila.jpg
clearly you reach something different here.. i really don't get this, I'm sure it's something very simple