Recent content by thudda

Hi..thanks..:) I think the 1st expression implies that for every x value there is a corresponding y value.And the 2nd imply that for all x values there's one or a set of y values...what I want to know is whether it is one y value or a set of y values..

What is the difference between the 2 expressions 1) for all x belongs to ℝ there exists y belongs to ℝ such that f(x)=y 2) there exists y belongs to ℝ such that for all x belongs to ℝ , f(x)=y I want to know the exact difference.

I thought about that too but could'nt figure out 2 examples for a and be..But just figured out we can use a=√2 and b=-√2 so that a+b=0 and (a+b)/2=0 which is rational. Any way thanks a lot.

I have found some trouble in trying to prove this question.please help mw with that. Q1) If (a+b)/2 is a rational number can we say that a and b are also rational numbers.? Justify your answer. I have tried the sum in the following way. Assume (a+b)/2=p/q (As it is rational) Lets...