Recent content by unica

Hello, everyone, can you give me the details of how to figure out the high-symmetry points of the first Brillouin zone of rhombohedral structure, such as bismuth? Thank you.

Yes, I mean the ground state. Do you know how to calculate it theoretically or numerically?

hello, friends in this forum. Do you provide me some cues in calculating the many-body wavefunction? such as the fpu-beta model, the Hamiltonian of it is H=\sum_{i=1}^{N}\frac{p_{i}^{2}}{2}+\frac{(x_{i}-x_{i-1})^{2}}{2}+\frac{(x_{i}-x_{i-1})^{4}}{4} ,Thank you!

Well,I think you can use the molecular dynamics to solve this problem.Set the Hamiltonian such as fpu model,phi-4model...,and then calculate the diffusion coefficient by fourier's law.BTW,if you do like this,you can find that abnormal diffusion is emerged in 2D and 1D. needing more details you...

Another easy question:Does the Moebius strip pertain to the SU(2) group??

Any rotation about n(θ, φ) in SU(2) can be represent as u(n, ω) = I cos[ω/2] - i(σ.n)sin[ω/2],where I is the unit matrix and i is the complex number.Right? But can someone tell me why ω/2 rather than ω? Waiting for your response.Thank you.

You can see this book:Quantum Field Theory,Lewis H.Ryder.It may help you to understand your questions

why is not need for introducing a true collapse in bohmian interpretation?

recently,i read some papers about bohmian mechanics.i want someone to introduce me the newest developments in this filed,thank you

absolutely it is a good question.but please remember what is the mean of observation?the nature of observation is the interaction between photon(electron and so forth)and matter.and this process is independent of the observer.i think you may want to ask how is the QM system evolution without any...

I have understood your mean.Thank you very much,George.

Thank you for Jones's response.But I am still confused. Yes,I want to verify that Lorentz transformation seen in elementary treatments of special relativity satisfy this equation.And I accept that those two \Lambdas represent the same Lorentz transformation. But the \Lambda^{\mu}_{\rho}...

But even using the rapidity,we still encounter the key point,that is ,the different rapidities between that two \Lambda,you can see that the one is\Lambda^{\mu}_{\rho},the other is\Lambda^{\nu}_{\sigm a},so during deduction we should use \theta and \theta^{\prime}respectively,and this revision...

Yes,I know it imply that the interval of two points is invariant in the Lorentz transformation. I have a plausible deduction as follow...

I encountered a problem during studying QFT,can anyone help me out? How to directly deduce this formula as follow: g_{\mu\nu}\Lambda^{\mu}_{\rho}\Lambda^{\nu}_{\sigma}=g_{\rho\sigma} where g is a Minkowski metric and\Lambda is a Lorentz transformation matrix. I am looking forward to...