I'd say assume no frictional losses, then solve in terms of bend losses etc. You can then obtain V1 in terms of V2,eg. V1= sqrt(k2/k1)V2 (Where k is the sum of the loss coefficients ,the Ks will vary for each pipe.). Then plug that into Q=A1V1 + A2V2 to get the value of V2, and subsequently Q2...