RandallB said:
No; bruce2g provided an example that used correlation counts.
I'm pretty sure the paper shows the result of
both coincidence counts
and the "raw data" of all photons at a particular detector--look at the more recent version of the paper
here which goes into a bit more detail. The last paragraph of the introduction says:
In this paper, we present a simple method using Fourier-optical analysis for a two-photon state, considering the quantum correlation between the constituent photons. This approach corresponds to the Fraunhofer diffraction of the classical optics, and is applicable to any arbitrary object. To demonstrate the essence of this concept, we measure the diffraction-interference patterns of parametric down-converted photons through a transmission grating, as an example of arbitrary objects, by means of both one- and two-photon detection schemes.
Someone can correct me if I'm wrong, but I take a "one-photon detection scheme" to mean a scheme that looks at the total pattern of photons at a single detector without doing any correlations with the other member of the pair. If you look at the equations in the subsequent section, they define the "two-photon amplitude" in terms of a function of the form F(x,x') [equation 2], where x is a possible position for the first photon and x' is a position for the second photon, so what they're talking about is an amplitude (and hence a probability based on the square of this amplitude, which in equation 3 is written as R(x,x') and which they call the 'two-photon counting rate') for both members of the entangled pair to be found at a particular pair of locations. They then go on to talk about measuring the "transverse wave number" of each member of the pair rather than the position, for which they use the variable q (from the graphs and the definition of
wave number I gather that q is just a function of position with dimensions of 1/position, and after eq. 19 they mention that the transverse wave numbers are normalized by q = 2pi/d), so that in equation 4 the two-photon counting rate for two values q and q' is written as R(q,q'). Then in equation 17 they talk about the
one-photon counting rate, which they write as R(q), so it seems they're just talking about the total probability a single member of the pair will be measured to have the value q, without any correlations to the other member of the pair being used.
Then after equation (18) they consider "an uncorrelated case", and derive the "two-photon counting rate of two independent photons" (i.e. no entanglement), and in Fig 2b they show two graphs of the predicted results, the top for the one-photon counting rate and the bottom for the two-photon counting rate; both show interference. But then they go on to consider the case of correlated photons, and in Fig. 4a they consider "perfect spatial correlation", with the corresponding graphs in Fig. 4b showing interference for the two-photon counting rate but no interference for the one-counting rate. What do you think this means, if not that their theoretical predictions is that the total pattern of photons at one detector will
not show interference in the case where they are entangled with the photons at the other detector in such a way that they have "perfect spatial correlation"?
Then if you look at the experimental results in section III, they agree with the theoretical predictions--Fig. 7 shows no interference observed in one-photon detection, with interference observed in two-photon detection. Also note that they ran the same experiment with non-entangled using "thermal light generated from a tungsten-halogen lamp", with the results in Fig. 9--in this case interference
was observed in the one-photon detection case as well as the two-photon detection case.
Please look over the sections of the paper I mention, and if you disagree with my understanding of what was going on and think that the "one-photon detection" involved correlation too, can you explain your reasons? What do you think was being correlated with what?
RandallB said:
Tons of experiments include data without correlation counts on one of two beams from a PDC. As I pointed out in the prior post if no pattern was there, I have no doubt it would have been reported and published widely.
But you're using circular reasoning here--you
assume that the theoretical prediction is that there should be interference, and thus that if no interference was found this would be considered surprising and "published widely". You do not hold your own ideas to the same standard, since you do not expect that if interference
was observed this would be "published widely" as well. So I think we'd both agree that results which were completely expected will not be "published widely" unless physicists find something interesting or nontrivial about them, we just disagree on which results are in fact expected in orthodox QM. But you haven't given a single argument as to
why you are sure that the theoretical prediction is that interference should be seen in the total pattern of entangled photons, you just assume that because it's your gut feeling or something, in spite of the fact that all the experts are telling you something different.
RandallB said:
You seem to think the information was there and they just ignored it not reporting it, how can you explain that.
Just as you seem to think that if interference
was observed, that information would not have been widely reported. Again, I think we'd both agree that ho-hum results which everyone expected and which have no new applications or theoretical interest will not be "widely" reported (which is not to say they'll be 'ignored', just that you'll have to do some digging to find papers that bother to report it), we just disagree over which result physicists would expect in the case of entangled photons.
RandallB said:
Also, just how do you get "complementarity" into play with just one photon, ie. without using correlation to connect with a second.
I don't think that word means what you think it means. "Complementarity" has nothing specifically to do with correlations, it's basically just the notion of "wave-particle duality", that quantum objects behave like particles when you measure them while they behave like waves when you don't (see
here or http://64.233.169.104/search?q=cache:him79MfY87QJ:grad.physics.sunysb.edu/~amarch/+complementarity+double+slit&hl=en&ct=clnk&cd=9&gl=us or http://prola.aps.org/abstract/PRD/v19/i2/p473_1 for more info). In the case of the double-slit experiment with ordinary non-entangled particle, "complementarity" is used to sum up the notion that if you are able to determine which slit the particle went through, you won't see a wavelike interference pattern, but if you don't determine which slit it went through, you
will see interference. The interference pattern disappears in the same way regardless of what physical method you use to determine what slit it went through--bouncing photons off the slits (in the case of the double slit experiment with electrons), putting polarization filters on the slits (in the case of the experiment with photons), putting shutters on the slits which open and close at different times, etc. So, if complementarity is to work the same way in the case of entangled particles, you should not be able to simultaneously see an interference pattern and yet determine which slit each particle went through by measuring its twin; this is what I meant when I said your idea would violate complementarity. This is a conceptual argument and so not really rigorous, but it's better than no argument at all, which is what you've given so far for your position.
edit: I just want to note an example of a paper which says that the fact that you get an interference pattern when you erase the which-path info in DCQE can be understood in terms of "complementarity":
http://arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/0512207
The idea of quantum
erasure lies in its connection to Bohr’s principle of com-
plementarity [4]: although a quantum mechanical object
is dually particle and wave; its particle-like and wave-
like behaviors cannot be observed simultaneously. For
example, if one observes an interference pattern from
a standard Young’s double-slit interferometer by means
of single-photon counting measurement, a photon must
have been passing both slits like a wave and consequently
the which-slit information can never be learned. On the
other hand, any information about through which slit
the photon has passed destroys the interference. In this
context Scully and Druhl showed that if the which-slit
(which-path) information is erased, the interference pat-
tern can be recovered; the situation becomes extremely
fascinating when the erasing idea is combined with the
delayed choice proposal by Wheeler and Alley [5,6]: i.e.
even after the detection of the quantum itself, it is still
possible to decide whether to erase or not to erase the
which-path information, hence to observe the wave be-
havior or the particle behavior of the quantum mechani-
cal object.
Also, note that I provided a second argument in my last post which doesn't depend on complementarity and which I think is even more clear:
your version is implausible since if the total pattern of signal photons shows interference, it's hard to see how you could pick out any subsets that would show non-interference--what about the valleys of your imagined total interference pattern where no photons hit, wouldn't this mean every possible subset of the total pattern would have dark bands in the same places?
Do you disagree that in any interference pattern, there will be some positions where the destructive interference is complete so that you see no photon hits at all in these positions? Do you disagree that in the corresponding-non interference pattern, the probability of photon hits at those locations is
not zero? If so, how could you possibly get a correct non-interference pattern by taking a
subset of all the photon hits in an interference pattern? (i.e. throwing away some of the hits and keeping the rest, but not adding any new hits)
In comparison, if the total pattern of signal photons shows a non-interference pattern, as I (and Aczel and Greene and Zeilinger) am saying, then it's easy to take two subsets of this and get two interference patterns (with the peaks of one lining up with the valleys of another), or to take two different subsets and get two different non-interference patterns, which is what the different possible subsets look like in the delayed choice quantum eraser depending on whether you erase or preserve the idlers' which-path info.
RandallB said:
Without real results from a real experiment to support your view I see no reason for use to continue this further.
Again, I think the paper bruce2g references does indeed show what happens when you look at the total pattern of entangled photons. And I'll note again that you're showing something of a double standard here, since you demand others show results demonstrating the total pattern shows non-interference, but you don't feel any need to look for results that demonstrate your claim that the total pattern
will show interference.
RandallB said:
Without that this can only become an argument, not even a rational debate as should be conducted in the threads.
Again, some experimental results have been provided, hopefully you'll address them. But in any case, people certainly have rational debates about theoretical predictions on physicsforums threads all the time--the only reason this has not been much of a "rational debate" so far is that
you consistently refuse to address any of my arguments or provide any theoretical arguments of your own. Since you're unwilling to provide any reasons whatsoever to believe that mainstream QM predicts the results you claim it does, and you obviously haven't done any mathematical calculations to check, I take it you don't have any intellectual reasons at all, it's just a sort of unfounded gut feeling of yours, which makes your absolute confidence that you are right and all these professional physicists wrong all the more ridiculous.
RandallB said:
Added note:
JesseM, you have long ago covered the point that the QM view of a single beam from “entanglement” is no different a normal beam of light not generated from something like PDC “entanglement” with
vanesch see
vanash post from Nov 2006.
"Well, if you only look at ONE beam, you cannot distinguish "entangled" photons from a statistical mixture of "non-entangled" photons." ( vanash)
I don't think you understood the followup posts (#7 and #8
here), because in the next post I asked if vanesch was talking about not being able to distinguish entangled photons from a
mixed state of photons which definitely came from
either slit A
or from slit B. In such a mixed state, there is
no interference between photons that came from the first slit and photons that came from the second! (A mixed state is a statistical mixture of pure quantum states that reflects ordinary classical uncertainty, like if you know there's a 50% chance the system is in quantum state |A> and a 50% chance it's in quantum state |B>...in this case there's no interference between |A> and |B>, the expectation value for an operator O would just be 0.5*<A|O|A> + 0.5*<B|O|B>...see
here, for example. So if |A> and |B> are states which evolved from position eigenstates of the photon at the moment it passed through one slit or the other, you won't get interference on the screen.) And vanesch confirmed that this is what he meant. Only when the non-entangled photons going through the slits are in a "pure state" (or a mixed state where none of the pure states it's a mixture of are ones that tell you which slit the photon went through) do you get interference between the two slits.
RandallB said:
Your argument is not with me; it is with fundamental QM. If you are still having trouble with that, get vanesch to help you out again.
Like I said, you misunderstood what vanesch meant (if you doubt this, just ask him). Anyway, it's odd that you would cite vanesch as an authority here, when in post #49 of
this thread vanesch said:
Now, what with entanglement ? The whole point by using interference in entangled states is to try to have "one slit" of beam A to correspond with a measurable property of beam B, and "the other slit" of beam A to correspond with the complementary property of beam B. This is interesting because it gives us the idea that we might "cheat" on the interference mechanism: by using the measureable property on beam B, we might find out (potentially) through which slit beam A went, and nevertheless have an interference pattern. THIS is what is impossible, for the following reason.
AS LONG AS IT IS POTENTIALLY POSSIBLE (I'm with JesseM here) to do so, no interference pattern can be obtained by beam A.
Also, if you look at the rest of that post, you see he talks a lot about pure states vs. statistical mixtures (i.e. mixed states), and how the beam A of entangled photons will behave like a statistical mixture rather than a pure state, which explains why they don't show interference.