To make sure I understand (and I may not because the notions of forms and wedge products are still a bit new to me), does this mean I should express the tensor as a linear combination of the tensors
[0 1 0 0]
[-1 0 0 0]
[0 0 0 0]
[0 0 0 0],
[0 0 1 0]
[0 0 0 0]
[-1 0 0 0]
[0 0 0 0],
[0 0 0 1]
[0 0 0 0]
[0 0 0 0]
[-1 0 0 0],
[0 0 0 0]
[0 0 1 0]
[0 -1 0 0]
[0 0 0 0],
[0 0 0 0]
[0 0 0 1]
[0 0 0 0]
[0 -1 0 0], and
[0 0 0 0]
[0 0 0 0]
[0 0 0 1]
[0 0 -1 0],
perform the Lorentz transformation on each by two applications of the transformation matrix, and then add up the resulting six matrices? In other words, do the above tensors form the basis in question? Earlier I naively tried to just apply the transformation matrix twice to the J-tensor itself, but the result wasn't antisymmetric, so I don't think it worked.
Then again, given the nature of matrix multiplication, it seems like writing the matrix as a linear combination of other matrices and multiplying each of them by the square of the transformation matrix would have the same effect as just multiplying the square of the transformation matrix directly with the original angular-momentum tensor itself, and I already tried that, so maybe I'm still not understanding.