IntegrateMe
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In Spivak's calculus book he provides a proof for:
Theorem: If f is continuous on [a, b] and f(a) < 0 < f(b), then there is some number x in [a, b] such that f(x) = 0.
In the proof he explicitly says, "...A has a least upper bound \alpha and that a < \alpha < b. We now wish to show that f(\alpha) = 0, by eliminating the possibilities f(\alpha) < 0 and f(\alpha) > 0."
This doesn't seem to apply as intuitively to me. How can a least upper bound be in the middle of a set? If we describe x to be between values a and b, then shouldn't the least upper bound and greatest lower bound be b and a, respectively?
Also, he continues to explain the first case, where f(\alpha) < 0. He says, "There is a \delta > 0 such that f(x) < 0 for \alpha - \delta < x0 < \alpha."
I'm confused with the notation here. I'm unsure what \delta represents, so if someone can offer an alternative explanation of this segment that would be greatly appreciated.
Thank you!
Also, the theorem is intuitive to me. I understand that if f is continuous and a < 0 and b > 0 then there has to be a point where it crosses the x-axis, but of course the proof is of more value here than the intuitive sense of the problem.
Theorem: If f is continuous on [a, b] and f(a) < 0 < f(b), then there is some number x in [a, b] such that f(x) = 0.
In the proof he explicitly says, "...A has a least upper bound \alpha and that a < \alpha < b. We now wish to show that f(\alpha) = 0, by eliminating the possibilities f(\alpha) < 0 and f(\alpha) > 0."
This doesn't seem to apply as intuitively to me. How can a least upper bound be in the middle of a set? If we describe x to be between values a and b, then shouldn't the least upper bound and greatest lower bound be b and a, respectively?
Also, he continues to explain the first case, where f(\alpha) < 0. He says, "There is a \delta > 0 such that f(x) < 0 for \alpha - \delta < x0 < \alpha."
I'm confused with the notation here. I'm unsure what \delta represents, so if someone can offer an alternative explanation of this segment that would be greatly appreciated.
Thank you!
Also, the theorem is intuitive to me. I understand that if f is continuous and a < 0 and b > 0 then there has to be a point where it crosses the x-axis, but of course the proof is of more value here than the intuitive sense of the problem.