Verifying Inner Product Space: q(x)e^-(x^2/2)

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SUMMARY

The functions of the form q(x)e^-(x^2/2), where q(x) is a polynomial of degree < N, form an inner product space on the interval -∞ < x < ∞. The dimension of this space is N, and it satisfies the inner product conditions, specifically (u|u) ≥ 0 and linearity in the inner product. The integral of the product of any two such functions is finite due to the exponential term, confirming the space's completeness and classification as L2. Additionally, the discussion highlights the distinction between inner product spaces and semi-inner product spaces, particularly in the context of functions that are zero almost everywhere.

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Thunder_Jet
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Hi everyone!

I would like to ask how would you verify if functions form an inner product space? For example, if one has functions of the form q(x)e^-(x^2/2) where q(x) is a polynomial of degree < N in x, on the interval -∞ < x < ∞. Also, how would you specify the dimension of the space, if it exists?

Thank you!
 
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The dimension is N. It forms an inner product space, since the integral of the product of any two such functions is finite (the exponential term insures this).
 
Last edited:
Check using the definition of an inner product would be my initial suggestion.

1) (u|u)\geq 0 and 0 iff u = 0
2) (\alpha u+ \beta v|w) = \alpha (u|w) + \beta (v|w) Aka that it is linear

If this holds true \forall u,v,w then the inner product is defined for the said space and is thus a inner product space (given of course that it is in a vector space to begin with)
 
Note that vector spaces whose elements are functions usually fail the condition \langle f,f\rangle=0\Rightarrow 0. (Define f by f(x)=1 when x=0 and f(x)=0 otherwise; then \langle f,f\rangle=0 but f≠0). Such a space is sometimes called a semi-inner product space.
 
Fredrik said:
Note that vector spaces whose elements are functions usually fail the condition \langle f,f\rangle=0\Rightarrow 0. (Define f by f(x)=1 when x=0 and f(x)=0 otherwise; then \langle f,f\rangle=0 but f≠0). Such a space is sometimes called a semi-inner product space.

Since f = 0 almost everywhere, this will be an inner product space. Moreover it is complete, so it is L2.
 
mathman said:
Since f = 0 almost everywhere, this will be an inner product space.
By definition of inner product, it's not. But you can define an equivalence relation by saying that f~g if f=g almost everywhere, and then define an inner product on the set of equivalence classes by \langle [f],[g]\rangle=\langle f,g\rangle. That's an inner product on the left and a semi-inner product on the right.
 
Thank you so much for the insights! All of your comments gave me an idea on how to attack the problem! Thanks once again!
 

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