Deriving the London's equation for superconductor

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The equation can be obtained from the fact that the "canonical momentum of the ground grstate of superconductor is zero", but where does this fact follow from.
P.S. Jackson gives a vague reference to Kittel, which I couldn't find in his Introduction_to_solid_state/Quantum_theory_of_Solids.
 
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There are plenty of explanations around. Maybe the most general is due to broken symmetry arguments as expounded by Weinberg:
http://ptp.ipap.jp/link?PTPS/86/43/
 
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Thank you for the gem, DrDu - it is beautiful.
 
Actually, it is beautiful, but I don't understand much. Can you provide an explanation without calling for field theory?
 
In Kittel Quantum theory of solids he discusses how a superconductor reacts to an applied transversal field of long wavelength. He finds that the wavefunction remains unchanged to lowest order. Hence the expectation of the momentum <p>=0 also does not change with A. This has already been called "rigidity of the wavefunction" by the Londons.
 
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