Prove a function is not analytic but it is smooth

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the function defined piecewise, where it is continuous and smooth (C-infinity) at all points, including at zero. The original poster seeks to demonstrate that while the function is smooth, it is not analytic, particularly at the point where it is defined as zero.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster examines the derivatives of the function and questions the validity of their approach when dealing with limits that yield the form zero times infinity. They consider using the product of limits to establish continuity and smoothness.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring various substitutions and limit approaches to analyze the behavior of the function as it approaches zero. Some guidance has been offered regarding the behavior of exponential functions relative to polynomials, but no consensus has been reached on the specific limit manipulations.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes considerations of limits involving indeterminate forms and the implications of smoothness versus analyticity. There is an ongoing examination of the assumptions made regarding the limits and their products.

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given

f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}e^{-x^{-2}},& \mbox{ if } x!=0 \\ 0, \mbox{ if } x=0 \end{array}\right

show that the function is C-infinity smooth but not analytic

What I have done so far (besides verify that it is continuous) is examine the first few derivatives I found they are in the form of a sum of a rational function of \frac{c}{x^n} (where c is some number) times the exponential function. I now need to show that all these derivatives right hand and left hand limit equal 0. So I stated the nth derivative could be composed of the sum of some rational function times the exponential. Then the limit of this function is equal to the product of the limit of the two functions. I get zero times infinity. Is this a legal move? Can I say that zero times infinity is zero?

let p(x)=\frac{c}{x^n} \ \ q(x)=e^{-x^{-2}}

then \lim_{\substack{x\rightarrow0}} p(x)q(x) = \lim_{\substack{x\rightarrow0}} p(x) *\lim_{\substack{x\rightarrow0}} q(x)
I want to use that to show that the derivative will always be continuous. Therefore it will be C infinity smooth. Then I am going to do a power series expansion of the exponential and work on figuring out why it isn't analytic.
 
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Try the substitution y=1/x and change the limit to y-> infinity.
 
I tried the substitution

I get p(x)=c*y^n and q(x)= e^(-y^2)

which when I take the product of the limits as y goes to infinity I still have infinity times zero. Am I allowed to say that infinity times zero is zero?
 
Well, obviously you need to take the limit. Exponentials grow faster than any polynomial.
 

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