- #1
lalbatros
- 1,256
- 2
Can the wavefunction collapse not be derived or is it really an axiom?
How can the answer to this question (yes or no) be proven?
If it is an axiom, is it the best formulation, is it not a dangerous wording?
Let's enjoy this endless discussion !
How can the answer to this question (yes or no) be proven?
If it is an axiom, is it the best formulation, is it not a dangerous wording?
Let's enjoy this endless discussion !