Why Can't Diamagnetism Occur in Classical Mechanics?

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Why diamagnetism can't occur in classical mechanics?

Where can I know more about that?

Thanks
 
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But it does! Any application of Lenz's law where a magnetic moment tries to oppose change in an applied field is essentially the classical equivalent of diamagnetism.
 
What about the Bohr-van Leeuwen theorem?
Doesn't it states that there is no diamagnetism in classic mechanics?
 
Bohr-van Leeuwen is a theorem ruling out magnetic ordering in classical mechanics. However, diamagnetism is a response to a magnetic field, not a type of magnetic ordering, so all is well.
 
From the BCS theory of superconductivity is well known that the superfluid density smoothly decreases with increasing temperature. Annihilated superfluid carriers become normal and lose their momenta on lattice atoms. So if we induce a persistent supercurrent in a ring below Tc and after that slowly increase the temperature, we must observe a decrease in the actual supercurrent, because the density of electron pairs and total supercurrent momentum decrease. However, this supercurrent...
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