Is Force Ever a Function of Acceleration in Classical Mechanics?

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GreenLRan
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In class today, my professor said that you will never find a force that is a function of acceleration.

Why is this?


M[tex]\ddot{x}[/tex](t) = F(x,y,z,[tex]\dot{x},\dot{y},\dot{z}[/tex],t)
M[tex]\ddot{y}[/tex](t) = F(x,y,z,[tex]\dot{x},\dot{y},\dot{z}[/tex],t)
M[tex]\ddot{z}[/tex](t) = F(x,y,z,[tex]\dot{x},\dot{y},\dot{z}[/tex],t)

This is in a classical mechanics / dynamics course
 
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Usually forces vary with time, because acceleration would vary with time. I think he meant that you would not find a function such that F=2a2+a+3 as that would not work dimensionally.
 
What about a reaction force? For example a string attached to a ball and accelerating the ball, the force the ball exerts on the string is a function of the acceleration of the ball.
 
rcgldr said:
What about a reaction force? For example a string attached to a ball and accelerating the ball, the force the ball exerts on the string is a function of the acceleration of the ball.

Well that is what I am saying, I think your professor meant that you would not usually measure force with acceleration or well plot force against acceleration.