Applying Newton's Laws to Exercise: Understanding the Physics of Fitness

AI Thread Summary
Newton's laws of motion can be directly applied to exercise, illustrating the relationship between force, mass, and acceleration. The first law, inertia, explains how a body at rest remains at rest until acted upon, relevant in exercises that require overcoming initial resistance. The second law emphasizes that the acceleration of an object is proportional to the net force acting on it, which is crucial in understanding how muscles generate force during movement. The third law highlights that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction, applicable in various exercises where forces interact, such as pushing against weights. Understanding these principles can clarify the energy dynamics in both dynamic and isometric exercises.
sukha40
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
I was wondering if anybody can help me out on this one.. I am doing a small project that requires me to:

Write how Newtons laws relate to exercise, and give an example for each law.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
One problem with this is that muscles use up engery to apply a force, even in the case that no movement is invovled (isometric exercises for example). Relating engery consumed to work done is tough when there are are cases where no work is done but lots of energy is consumed.

Of course there's the Newtonian law that for every force, there's an equal and opposite force (which can produce accelerations). This does apply to most forms of exercise.
 
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
This has been discussed many times on PF, and will likely come up again, so the video might come handy. Previous threads: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/is-a-treadmill-incline-just-a-marketing-gimmick.937725/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/work-done-running-on-an-inclined-treadmill.927825/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/how-do-we-calculate-the-energy-we-used-to-do-something.1052162/
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...

Similar threads

Replies
37
Views
557
Replies
0
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
27
Views
2K
Replies
18
Views
2K
Back
Top