Ordinal Property of Subsets in Well-Ordered Sets

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A well-ordered set x has the property that every subset contains a least element, with linear ordering allowing comparison among all members. A set is ordinal if it is transitive and well-ordered by the membership relation. The claim discussed is that if α is an ordinal and β is an element of α, then β is also an ordinal. Initially, there was confusion regarding the proof's completeness, particularly in demonstrating that every element of β is a subset of β. Ultimately, the conclusion reached is that β's properties stem from its definition and relationship to α, affirming its ordinal status.
jostpuur
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A set x is well-ordered by < if every subset of x has a least element. Here < is assumed a linear ordering, meaning that all members of a set can be compared, unlike with partial ordering.

A set x is transitive if it has property \forall y\;(y\in x\to y\subset x).

A set \alpha is ordinal, if it is transitive and well-ordered by \in.

The claim: If \alpha is an ordinal, and \beta\in\alpha, then \beta is ordinal too.

A book says that this claim is clear "by definition", however I see only half of the proof by definition.

We have \beta\in\alpha\to\beta\subset\alpha, and a subset of a well-ordered set is also well-ordered, so that part is clear by definition.

We should also prove a claim \forall\gamma\;(\gamma\in\beta\to\gamma\subset\beta). How is this supposed to come from the definition? I only see \gamma\in\beta\to\gamma\in\alpha\to\gamma\subset\alpha.

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update: Oh I understood this now! No need for help. :cool: But I would like to complain that the book is playing fool on the reader. I wouldn't call that "by definition".

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second update: We assume \gamma\in\beta and then

<br /> \neg(\gamma\subset\beta)\to \exists\delta\;(\delta\in\gamma\land\delta\notin\beta)<br />
<br /> \to\exists\delta\;\big(\delta\in\gamma\land(\beta\in\delta\lor \beta=\delta)\big)<br />
<br /> \to\exists\delta\big(\underbrace{(\delta\in\gamma\land\beta\in\delta)}_{\to 0=1}\lor\underbrace{(\delta\in\gamma\land \beta=\delta)}_{\to 0=1}\big)\to 0=1<br />

Does that look like "by definition"? :devil:
 
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I think they call it by definition for this reason. Since ##\beta\subset\alpha##, ##\beta## is well ordered by ##\in##, as you pointed out. So for ##\beta' < \beta## in ##\alpha##, ##\beta'\in\beta##, and for ##\beta' > \beta##, ##\beta\in\beta'## which precludes ##\beta## containing any of these larger elements. But ##\beta\subset\alpha##, therefore ##\beta## is exactly the union of elements of ##\alpha## less than ##\beta##. But then ##\forall\gamma\in\beta \; (\gamma\subset\beta)## and ##\beta## is transitive.

So in a sense, ##\beta## is defined in this way by those definitions.
 
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I was reading documentation about the soundness and completeness of logic formal systems. Consider the following $$\vdash_S \phi$$ where ##S## is the proof-system making part the formal system and ##\phi## is a wff (well formed formula) of the formal language. Note the blank on left of the turnstile symbol ##\vdash_S##, as far as I can tell it actually represents the empty set. So what does it mean ? I guess it actually means ##\phi## is a theorem of the formal system, i.e. there is a...

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