Uniform Convergence Homework: Is ##f_n(x) = \frac{x}{1+nx^2}##?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the uniform convergence of the sequence of functions defined by ##f_n(x) = \frac{x}{1+nx^2}## on the interval ##[0,1]##. Participants are exploring the conditions under which this sequence converges uniformly to zero.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are examining the limit of the functions as ##n## approaches infinity and questioning the validity of their initial attempts to establish uniform convergence. There is a suggestion to find the maximum value of the functions to aid in the analysis.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants offering hints and exploring different approaches to the problem. Some are questioning the assumptions made in the original poster's reasoning and considering alternative methods to analyze the convergence.

Contextual Notes

One participant notes that they have not yet covered certain concepts, such as derivatives or the relationship between uniform convergence and the supremum of the functions, which may limit their ability to apply some suggested methods.

Lee33
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Homework Statement



Is the sequence of function ##f_1, f_2,f_3,\ldots## on ##[0,1]## uniformly convergent if ##f_n(x) = \frac{x}{1+nx^2}##?

2. The attempt at a solution

I got the following but I think I did it wrong.

For ##f_n(x) = \frac{x}{1+nx^2}##, I got if ##f_n \to0## then we must find ##\epsilon>0## an ##N## such that for ##n>N## implies ##|f_n-0|<\epsilon.## So ##f_n(x) = \frac{x}{1+nx^2}##; ##\lim_{n\to\infty}f_n(x) =0##. Then for ##\epsilon>0## we have ##|f_n(x)-f(x)| = |\frac{x}{1+nx^2}|\le |\frac{1}{1+n}|<|\frac{1}{n}|<\epsilon## thus ##N = \frac{1}{\epsilon}##. But I think this is wrong since ##|1+nx^2|<|1+n|##? How can I show it is uniformly convergent?
 
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##f_n \rightarrow 0## uniformly if and only if ##\sup f_n \rightarrow 0##. So I would suggest that you start by finding the maximum value of ##f_n##.
 
jbunniii -

We haven't been taught that way yet. We still haven't defined "derivative" or proved ##f_n \to 0## uniformly iff ##\sup f_n \to 0## so I can't use it to prove my problem. What I was thinking is how can I divide into two regions?
 
Consider the denominator: ##1 + nx^2##. This is not quite a perfect square, but it would be if we added the missing term (actually, subtracting is more useful here): ##1 - 2\sqrt{n} x + nx^2 = (1 - \sqrt{n}x)^2##. Now this is a square, so it is nonnegative. What can you conclude?
 
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Thanks, jbunniii for the hint!
 

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