1-D harmonic oscillator problem

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8614smith
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Homework Statement


Consider a particle of mass m moving in a one-dimensional potential,

[tex]V(x)=\infty[/tex] for [tex]x\leq0[/tex]

[tex]V(x)=\frac{1}{2}m{\omega^2}{x^2}[/tex] for [tex]x>0[/tex]

This potential describes an elastic spring (with spring constant K = m[tex]\omega^2[/tex]) that can be extended but not compressed.

By reference to the solution of the 1-D harmonic oscillator potential sketch and state the form of the valid eigenfunctions, and state the corresponding eigenvalues, for the ground and first excited state.



Homework Equations


[tex]E=(n+\frac{1}{2})\hbar\omega[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


https://www.physicsforums.com/attachment.php?attachmentid=23025&stc=1&d=1263339354
Here is the potential sketch

Since the potential V(x)=[tex]\infty[/tex] for [tex]x\leq0[/tex], The potential at x=0 is infinity. So the wave function at x=0 must equal 0. If it were anything else the particle would have infinite energy. Therefore eigenfunctions must pass through the origin.

http://131.104.156.23/Lectures/CHEM_207/CHEM_207_Pictures/p75a_72gif

From the graph, n=1 and n=3 are the lowest eigenfunctions to pass through the origin.

Ground state eigenfunction n=1 [tex]{E_1}=(1+\frac{1}{2})\hbar\omega=\frac{3}{2}\hbar\omega[/tex]

1st excited state eigenfunction n=3 [tex]{E_2}=(3+\frac{1}{2})\hbar\omega=\frac{7}{2}\hbar\omega[/tex]

Can someone tell me if this is right?
 
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8614smith said:
1st excited state eigenfunction n=3
[tex] {E_2}=(3+\frac{1}{2})\hbar\omega=\frac{7}{2}\hbar\omega[/tex]

I believe you mean [itex]E_3=\cdots[/itex] and not what you wrote. But otherwise, this is correct. This problem is a good example of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parity_(physics)#Quantum_mechanics".
 
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jdwood983 said:
I believe you mean [itex]E_3=\cdots[/itex] and not what you wrote. But otherwise, this is correct. This problem is a good example of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parity_(physics)#Quantum_mechanics".

No, i meant [tex]E_2[/tex] as i thought it is the 2nd energy level i.e. the 1st excited state, can you tell me why this its not [tex]E_2[/tex]
 
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8614smith said:
No, i meant [tex]E_2[/tex] as i thought it is the 2nd energy level i.e. the 1st excited state, can you tell me why this its not [tex]E_2[/tex]

The reasoning is purely semantics. Since the formula is [itex]E_n=\left(n+\frac{1}{2}\right)\hbar\omega[/itex], if you have [itex]n=3[/itex] in the parenthesis, you should have [itex]n=3[/itex] as the subscript on [itex]E[/itex]. What you should say is (I made a mistake too)

[tex] E^\prime_1=E_3=\left(3+\frac{1}{2}\right)\hbar\omega=\frac{7}{2}\hbar\omega[/tex]

and you should also write

[tex] E^\prime_0=E_1=\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)\hbar\omega=\frac{3}{2}\hbar\omega[/tex]

because the first equation is the new first excited state and the second equation is the new ground state. If you calculate more levels, you should find that

[tex] E^\prime_n=\left(2n+\frac{3}{2}\right)\hbar\omega[/tex]