1 maximal subgroup -> prime order

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem in group theory, specifically regarding finite groups and their maximal subgroups. The original poster attempts to prove that if a finite group G has only one maximal subgroup M, then the order of G must be a power of a prime. They express confusion over their reasoning and seek clarification on a perceived flaw in their argument.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster presents a reasoning process involving subgroup chains and arrives at a contradiction. They question the validity of their conclusion that all elements of G must belong to M. Other participants suggest testing specific groups to illustrate the flaw in the reasoning, and one participant identifies a critical misunderstanding regarding the relationship between elements of G and M.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants engaging in clarifying the original poster's reasoning. Some guidance has been offered regarding the identification of groups with a single maximal subgroup, and a participant has pointed out a specific flaw in the original argument related to the generation of G.

Contextual Notes

Participants are exploring the implications of the group's structure and the definitions of maximal subgroups. There is an emphasis on understanding the properties of finite groups and the conditions under which they can have a unique maximal subgroup.

boboYO
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'Prove that if a finite group G has only one maximal subgroup M, then |G| is the power of a prime'


I've somehow deduced that no finite group has only one maximal subgroup, and I'm having trouble seeing where I went wrong.
This is what I have:

Let [tex]H_1[/tex] be a subgroup of G. Either [tex]H_1[/tex] is maximal and equal to M or it is not maximal and there is a [tex]H_2[/tex] such that [tex]H_1<H_2<G[/tex] (using < to mean proper subgroup). Apply the same argument to [tex]H_2[/tex] and we get an ascending chain of subgroups. Since G is finite the process must end eventually (when we reach M).

Thus every subgroup of G is a subgroup of M and hence every element of G is an element of M, and G=M, a contradiction.

So would someone like to point out the flaw in the above reasoning? thanks.
 
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boboYO said:
So would someone like to point out the flaw in the above reasoning? thanks.
Try substituting for G a particular group where the conclusion is obviously wrong. Do you know any groups with only one maximal subgroup?








The most obvious ones to me to try are the two-element group, or maybe the cyclic group on 4 elements.
 
Thanks Hurkyl. That should've been the first thing to do. For anyone interested, the problem is with the last sentence. It does not follow that every element of G is an element of M: the elements of G that generate G do not have to be in M.
 
I know that this post is old, but since it is top result when i google this problem, I think it would be good if i give further detail of solution.

Let $a \in G \setminus M$. Then $a$ generate $G$ which mean $G$ is cyclic. Suppose $|G| = p_{1}^{r_{1}}...p_{n}^{r_{n}}$ where $p_{i}$ is prime. So $a^{p_{i}}$ and $a^{p_{j}}$ generated a different maximal subgroup which is contradiction.
 

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