50th anniversary of Bell's theorem

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A special issue celebrating the 50th anniversary of Bell's theorem has been published in the Journal of Physics, featuring free access to all articles. Key discussions revolve around the implications of Bell's theorem on realism and counterfactual definiteness, with participants debating whether realism is an inherent assumption of the theorem. The conversation highlights the complexities of defining realism and its relationship to quantum mechanics, particularly in light of the Kochen-Specker theorem. Additionally, recent follow-up papers, including works by Maudlin and Werner, are referenced to further explore these themes. The ongoing discourse suggests that Bell's theorem continues to provoke significant interest and debate in the field of quantum physics.
  • #121
bohm2 said:
2. Another group holds that nature is fundamentally non-local, irrespective of all other issues (e.g. "realism", determinism, CFD, etc.)
3. Another group holds that we are driven to a choice between non-locality versus non-realism (e.g. local/non-local non-realism versus non-local realism).

Here is yet another way of seeing things. http://arxiv.org/abs/1208.4119 mentions the idea that Bell's theorem a choice between some form of "locality" and "common cause". In this case, quantum mechanics is nonlocal in order to save the idea of common cause. This is in contrast to the other definitions of "locality" in which quantum mechanics is local but discards some other idea like determinism.
 
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  • #122
bohm2 said:
This is the part that confuses me. It isn't only DrC who uses sees contextuality as implying non-realism. There are a number of other authors like Nieuwenhuizen, Hess, Krennikov, Accardi, Pitowsky, Rastal , Kupczynski, de Raedt, etc. who see contextuality in a somewhat similar light but draw different conclusions:
...
From the basics, Bell's inequality can be written as ##P(a, c) - P(b, a) - P(b, c) \le 1## Which we compare with QM/experiment. Experimentally, we are measuring three corresponding averages ## \langle AC\rangle, \langle BA \rangle, \langle BC \rangle## for which we assume that ##P(a, c) ≈ \langle AC\rangle, P(b, a) ≈ \langle BA \rangle, P(b, c) ≈ \langle BC \rangle## for a large number of measurements.
According to Bell's local realistic prescription (equation 2), we then have three quantities:

P(a,b) = \int_{[\lambda _{1..n}]} A(a,\lambda )B(b,\lambda ) \rho (\lambda ) d\lambda
P(b,c) = \int_{[\lambda _{n+1..m}]} A(b,\lambda )B(c,\lambda ) \rho (\lambda ) d\lambda
P(a,c) = \int_{[\lambda _{m+1..l]}]} A(a,\lambda )B(c,\lambda ) \rho (\lambda ) d\lambda
Reflecting the fact that experimentally, we can only measure each expectation value on a different set of particle pairs. Why is this relevant to contextuality, realism, locality, loophole etc. In a simple way:

Realism: Bell's inequality can not be violated if ## [\lambda _{1..n}] = [\lambda _{n+1..m}] = [\lambda _{m+1..l]}]##. This is equivalent to measuring each particle pair at three angles simultaneously (a practical impossibility). No spreadsheet of three columns of outcomes, one for each pair of particles can ever violate Bell's inequality. On the other hand, it is very easy to violate the inequality if ## [\lambda _{1..n}] \neq [\lambda _{n+1..m}] \neq [\lambda _{m+1..l]}]## (if you are interested I can show you examples). Therefore the derivation of the inequality must include (even implicitly) the assumption that 3 outcomes exist simultaneously for each particle pair. There is one problem though, you can't then rely on experimental data measured on different particle pairs to rule out realism. You can't claim 3 values do not exist simultaneously based on experiments which can never measure the 3 values simultaneously even if they existed.

Locality: If you assume that the same process is generating the particles ## [\lambda _{1..n}], [\lambda _{n+1..m}], [\lambda _{m+1..l]}]## used for each correlation, for large enough particle pairs, even if the sets are not the same, the probability distributions may be so similar that you should still obtain the same expectation values as you would have obtained from a single set as in the realism case. Then you can violate the inequality is if there is some communication between the sides. Another way to see this is to create a new "non-local" variable and assign it to the sets. Then you end up with ## [\lambda _{1..n}, \eta_1], [\lambda _{n+1..m}, \eta_2], [\lambda _{m+1..l]}, \eta_3]## Then you end up with different probability distributions which can violate the inequality. While we do not assume that the particles are the same set, we still assume that we should have had the same distribution, unless there is a non-local influence which changes the effective distribution after emission of the particle pairs. Note, if the non-local variables are the same value, you still won't be able to violate the inequality. You need non-local variables which change value in an angle dependent way.

Contextuality: This is very similar to the Locality case in that, we could encapsulate the context in another variable such that we now have sets ## [\lambda _{1..n}, \beta_1], [\lambda _{n+1..m}, \beta_2], [\lambda _{m+1..l]}, \beta_3]## If the contexts are different, then we have a way to introduce differences between the distributions and the inequality can be violated. Hess, De Raedt, Accardi and others argue that when measuring on different sets of particles at different times, it is natural to expect differences in context that are angle dependent. This is what loopholes are about, they are just ways of introducing differences in context and thus different distributions. For example:
- detection loophole: particle pairs are less likely to be detected at certain angles than others
- coincidence loophole: the likelihood of matching a pair varies with angle difference.
- "Superdeterminism": Same thing. Alice and Bob do not have the free to control the experiment such that ## [\lambda _{1..n}, \beta_1] = [\lambda _{n+1..m}, \beta_2] = [\lambda _{m+1..l]}, \beta_3]##.

There isn't a whole lot of difference between them.
 
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  • #123
For completeness, B. J. Hiley also just published a paper on the 50th anniversary of Bells 'theorem:
Some Personal Reflections on Quantum Non-locality and the Contributions of John Bell.
http://arxiv.org/pdf/1412.0594.pdf
 
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  • #124
More papers (all free access) devoted to the 50th anniversary of Bell's theorem in another new physics journal. Some interesting papers include a critical paper by Norsen on Wiseman's paper: "The two Bell’s theorems of John Bell”:

Are there really two different Bell's theorems?
http://www.ijqf.org/wps/wp-content/uploads/2014/12/Norsen-on-Wiseman.pdf

There also contributing papers by Bernard d'Espagnat, Tumulka, Bricmont, Zeh, Stapp, Healey, etc.:

John Bell Workshop 2014
http://www.ijqf.org/groups-2/bells-theorem/forum/
 
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  • #125
bohm2 said:
More papers (all free access) devoted to the 50th anniversary of Bell's theorem in another new physics journal. Some interesting papers include a critical paper by Norsen on Wiseman's paper: "The two Bell’s theorems of John Bell”:

Are there really two different Bell's theorems?
http://www.ijqf.org/wps/wp-content/uploads/2014/12/Norsen-on-Wiseman.pdf

It's good to see that Norsen and Wiseman don't disagree on physics, their disagreement is literary - there is more than one set of assumptions form which separability can be derived, and their disagreement is over exactly which set Bell used in 1964.
 
  • #126
bohm2 said:
More papers (all free access) devoted to the 50th anniversary of Bell's theorem in another new physics journal. Some interesting papers include a critical paper by Norsen on Wiseman's paper: "The two Bell’s theorems of John Bell”:

Are there really two different Bell's theorems?
http://www.ijqf.org/wps/wp-content/uploads/2014/12/Norsen-on-Wiseman.pdf

There also contributing papers by Bernard d'Espagnat, Tumulka, Bricmont, Zeh, Stapp, Healey, etc.:

John Bell Workshop 2014
http://www.ijqf.org/groups-2/bells-theorem/forum/

I'm not 100% sure I understand what the argument is about, in the paper by Norsen. But I appreciate that he makes a point that I think a lot of people miss:

Bell, in his model of a locally realistic theory, assumes a deterministic local theory. Many people assume that this is because either Bell, or Einstein, who inspired Bell's analysis had a prejudice in favor of deterministic theories. Einstein may have had a preference for deterministic theories, but the reason for Bell making his theory deterministic was not because of this preference, but simply because the perfect correlations predicted by quantum mechanics cannot possibly be reproduced by a local, nondeterministic theory. In the spin-1/2 version of the EPR experiment, when Alice measures the spin of one particle in one direction, she knows exactly what result Bob will get if he measures the spin of the other particle in that direction. So if the states of the two particles factor and evolve separately, then Bob's particle's state must be deterministic.

Bell could have started out with a more general form for hidden variables model; instead of being deterministic, it could be stochastic, so that the outcomes of a measurement are probabilistically related to the value of the hidden variable, instead of deterministically. But the answer would have been the same--no local hidden variables theory, deterministic or not, can reproduce the predictions of QM.
 
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