A bead rests at the top of a fixed, frictionless hoop.

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the dynamics of a bead sliding down a frictionless hoop, as presented in David Morin's "Introductory Classical Mechanics." The bead's acceleration is vertical at specific angles: φ = 0, cos-1(2/3), π, and 2π - cos-1(2/3). The normal force equation derived is N = mg(3cosφ - 2), which indicates that the normal force changes direction at certain points, affecting the bead's acceleration. The acceleration at φ = 0 is 0, while at φ = π, it is -6g, indicating a downward acceleration.

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  • #31
haruspex said:
Sure, but that is not the question. Gravity as a whole is vertical, and the only other force is the normal force, so for the net force to be vertical the normal force must be ...?
Pointing up or down?
 
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  • #32
physicsdude101 said:
Pointing up or down?
Zero or vertical, yes.
 
  • #33
haruspex said:
Zero or vertical, yes.
So the angles of vertical acceleration are $$\phi=0, cos^{-1}\frac{2}{3}, \pi, 2\pi-\cos^{-1}\frac{2}{3}$$?
 
  • #34
physicsdude101 said:
So the angles of vertical acceleration are $$\phi=0, cos^{-1}\frac{2}{3}, \pi, 2\pi-\cos^{-1}\frac{2}{3}$$?
Yes.
 
  • #35
haruspex said:
Yes.
So the accelerations at these points is g downwards. Correct?
 
Last edited:
  • #36
physicsdude101 said:
So the accelerations at these points is g downwards. Correct?
Only for those where the normal force is zero.
 
  • #37
haruspex said:
Only for those where the normal force is zero.
For Φ=0, a=0 and for Φ=π, a=-6g. Correct?
 
  • #38
physicsdude101 said:
For Φ=0, a=0 and for Φ=π, a=-6g. Correct?
Right for φ=0, but how do you get -6g?
 
  • #39
haruspex said:
Right for φ=0, but how do you get -6g?
In my equation N=mg(3cosφ-2) I put φ=π and get N=-5mg. Then the net force is -5mg-mg=-6mg.
 
  • #40
physicsdude101 said:
Then the net force is -5mg-mg=-6mg.
The normal force has to be acting vertically upward at the bottom of the loop and the weight vertically downward. So those 2 terms cannot be the same sign.
 
  • #41
TomHart said:
The normal force has to be acting vertically upward at the bottom of the loop and the weight vertically downward. So those 2 terms cannot be the same sign.
Ok so would it be 4mg then? How do I get -5mg using the formula though? Isn't that pointing downwards?
 
  • #42
physicsdude101 said:
Ok so would it be 4mg then? How do I get -5mg using the formula though? Isn't that pointing downwards?
If you look at how you obtained your equation for N, I think you will find that you have effectively defined it as positive radially outwards.
 
  • #43
haruspex said:
If you look at how you obtained your equation for N, I think you will find that you have effectively defined it as positive radially outwards.
Ah I think I get it. So my value of -5mg is correct the way I defined N, and it just means that at φ=π it has magnitude 5mg in the positive y direction? Thus the net force would have a magnitude 5mg-mg=4mg in the positive y direction?
 
  • #44
physicsdude101 said:
Ah I think I get it. So my value of -5mg is correct the way I defined N, and it just means that at φ=π it has magnitude 5mg in the positive y direction? Thus the net force would have a magnitude 5mg-mg=4mg in the positive y direction?
Yes.
 
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  • #45
Thank you. I think all my questions have been answered then. :)
 

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