A bead rests at the top of a fixed, frictionless hoop.

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A bead on a frictionless hoop experiences vertical acceleration at specific angles, determined by the conditions of forces acting on it. The critical points where the bead's acceleration is vertical occur when the normal force is zero, leading to the angles φ=0, cos⁻¹(2/3), π, and 2π-cos⁻¹(2/3). At these points, the acceleration is equal to g downwards, except at φ=0 where it is zero, and at φ=π where the net force results in a downward acceleration of 4g. The normal force changes direction at these angles, indicating a transition in the forces acting on the bead. Understanding these dynamics is essential for solving the problem accurately.
  • #31
haruspex said:
Sure, but that is not the question. Gravity as a whole is vertical, and the only other force is the normal force, so for the net force to be vertical the normal force must be ...?
Pointing up or down?
 
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  • #32
physicsdude101 said:
Pointing up or down?
Zero or vertical, yes.
 
  • #33
haruspex said:
Zero or vertical, yes.
So the angles of vertical acceleration are $$\phi=0, cos^{-1}\frac{2}{3}, \pi, 2\pi-\cos^{-1}\frac{2}{3}$$?
 
  • #34
physicsdude101 said:
So the angles of vertical acceleration are $$\phi=0, cos^{-1}\frac{2}{3}, \pi, 2\pi-\cos^{-1}\frac{2}{3}$$?
Yes.
 
  • #35
haruspex said:
Yes.
So the accelerations at these points is g downwards. Correct?
 
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  • #36
physicsdude101 said:
So the accelerations at these points is g downwards. Correct?
Only for those where the normal force is zero.
 
  • #37
haruspex said:
Only for those where the normal force is zero.
For Φ=0, a=0 and for Φ=π, a=-6g. Correct?
 
  • #38
physicsdude101 said:
For Φ=0, a=0 and for Φ=π, a=-6g. Correct?
Right for φ=0, but how do you get -6g?
 
  • #39
haruspex said:
Right for φ=0, but how do you get -6g?
In my equation N=mg(3cosφ-2) I put φ=π and get N=-5mg. Then the net force is -5mg-mg=-6mg.
 
  • #40
physicsdude101 said:
Then the net force is -5mg-mg=-6mg.
The normal force has to be acting vertically upward at the bottom of the loop and the weight vertically downward. So those 2 terms cannot be the same sign.
 
  • #41
TomHart said:
The normal force has to be acting vertically upward at the bottom of the loop and the weight vertically downward. So those 2 terms cannot be the same sign.
Ok so would it be 4mg then? How do I get -5mg using the formula though? Isn't that pointing downwards?
 
  • #42
physicsdude101 said:
Ok so would it be 4mg then? How do I get -5mg using the formula though? Isn't that pointing downwards?
If you look at how you obtained your equation for N, I think you will find that you have effectively defined it as positive radially outwards.
 
  • #43
haruspex said:
If you look at how you obtained your equation for N, I think you will find that you have effectively defined it as positive radially outwards.
Ah I think I get it. So my value of -5mg is correct the way I defined N, and it just means that at φ=π it has magnitude 5mg in the positive y direction? Thus the net force would have a magnitude 5mg-mg=4mg in the positive y direction?
 
  • #44
physicsdude101 said:
Ah I think I get it. So my value of -5mg is correct the way I defined N, and it just means that at φ=π it has magnitude 5mg in the positive y direction? Thus the net force would have a magnitude 5mg-mg=4mg in the positive y direction?
Yes.
 
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  • #45
Thank you. I think all my questions have been answered then. :)
 

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