A bead rests at the top of a fixed, frictionless hoop.

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    Bead Frictionless
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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a bead sliding down a fixed, frictionless hoop in a vertical plane. The primary question is to determine the points at which the bead's acceleration is vertical and to calculate the acceleration at those points. The context is rooted in classical mechanics, particularly focusing on forces and motion in circular paths.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of conservation of energy to find velocity and acceleration. There are attempts to derive equations for normal and tangential forces acting on the bead. Questions arise about the conditions under which the bead's acceleration is vertical and the implications of the normal force being zero.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on checking free body diagrams and the derivation of forces. There is ongoing exploration of the conditions for vertical acceleration and the implications of the normal force changing direction. Multiple angles and interpretations are being considered, but no consensus has been reached on the complete set of solutions.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the problem may have constraints regarding the number of points where the bead's acceleration is vertical, as indicated by hints in the original question. There is also mention of potential errors in previous calculations that could affect the understanding of the problem.

  • #31
haruspex said:
Sure, but that is not the question. Gravity as a whole is vertical, and the only other force is the normal force, so for the net force to be vertical the normal force must be ...?
Pointing up or down?
 
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  • #32
physicsdude101 said:
Pointing up or down?
Zero or vertical, yes.
 
  • #33
haruspex said:
Zero or vertical, yes.
So the angles of vertical acceleration are $$\phi=0, cos^{-1}\frac{2}{3}, \pi, 2\pi-\cos^{-1}\frac{2}{3}$$?
 
  • #34
physicsdude101 said:
So the angles of vertical acceleration are $$\phi=0, cos^{-1}\frac{2}{3}, \pi, 2\pi-\cos^{-1}\frac{2}{3}$$?
Yes.
 
  • #35
haruspex said:
Yes.
So the accelerations at these points is g downwards. Correct?
 
Last edited:
  • #36
physicsdude101 said:
So the accelerations at these points is g downwards. Correct?
Only for those where the normal force is zero.
 
  • #37
haruspex said:
Only for those where the normal force is zero.
For Φ=0, a=0 and for Φ=π, a=-6g. Correct?
 
  • #38
physicsdude101 said:
For Φ=0, a=0 and for Φ=π, a=-6g. Correct?
Right for φ=0, but how do you get -6g?
 
  • #39
haruspex said:
Right for φ=0, but how do you get -6g?
In my equation N=mg(3cosφ-2) I put φ=π and get N=-5mg. Then the net force is -5mg-mg=-6mg.
 
  • #40
physicsdude101 said:
Then the net force is -5mg-mg=-6mg.
The normal force has to be acting vertically upward at the bottom of the loop and the weight vertically downward. So those 2 terms cannot be the same sign.
 
  • #41
TomHart said:
The normal force has to be acting vertically upward at the bottom of the loop and the weight vertically downward. So those 2 terms cannot be the same sign.
Ok so would it be 4mg then? How do I get -5mg using the formula though? Isn't that pointing downwards?
 
  • #42
physicsdude101 said:
Ok so would it be 4mg then? How do I get -5mg using the formula though? Isn't that pointing downwards?
If you look at how you obtained your equation for N, I think you will find that you have effectively defined it as positive radially outwards.
 
  • #43
haruspex said:
If you look at how you obtained your equation for N, I think you will find that you have effectively defined it as positive radially outwards.
Ah I think I get it. So my value of -5mg is correct the way I defined N, and it just means that at φ=π it has magnitude 5mg in the positive y direction? Thus the net force would have a magnitude 5mg-mg=4mg in the positive y direction?
 
  • #44
physicsdude101 said:
Ah I think I get it. So my value of -5mg is correct the way I defined N, and it just means that at φ=π it has magnitude 5mg in the positive y direction? Thus the net force would have a magnitude 5mg-mg=4mg in the positive y direction?
Yes.
 
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  • #45
Thank you. I think all my questions have been answered then. :)
 

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