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If an integral is the area under a curve, why do we even have to find the anti derivative at all?

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- Thread starter taylor__hasty
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In summary, integrals are used to find the area under a curve, specifically the area under the curve of the original function. The antiderivative of a function is closely related to this area and can be used to calculate it more easily. It is defined as the function whose derivative is the original function.

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If an integral is the area under a curve, why do we even have to find the anti derivative at all?

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taylor__hasty said:

If an integral is the area under a curve, why do we even have to find the anti derivative at all?

An integral is the area under the curve of the (original) function.

This area is, however, closely related to the anti-derivative of the function. This is the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus.

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taylor__hasty said:

If an integral is the area under a curve, why do we even have to find the anti derivative at all?

The antiderivative (if available) is useful because if ##A(a,z)## is the area under the curve ##y = f(x)## from ##x=a## to ##x=z## (with ##a## some fixed number), and if ##F(x)## is the antiderivative of ##f(x)##, then we have:

[tex] \text{area} = A(a,z) = F(z) - F(a)[/tex]

(Fundamental Theorem of Calculus).

So, if you know the antiderivative function you can use it to calculate the area. That is a lot easier than splitting up the interval ##[a,z]## into 100 billion little intervals and adding up the 100 billion little rectangular areas (which would give a good approximation to the actual area---not necessarily the exact area).

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taylor__hasty said:

If an integral is the area under a curve, why do we even have to find the anti derivative at all?

Integration

As to anti-derivatives: The

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