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## Main Question or Discussion Point

I learned that integrals are finding the area under a curve. But I seem to be a little confused. Area under the curve of the derivative of the function? Or area under the curve of the original function?

If an integral is the area under a curve, why do we even have to find the anti derivative at all?

If an integral is the area under a curve, why do we even have to find the anti derivative at all?