A number can be random even if limitations are applied to the outcome - e.g. selecting a random integer between 1 and 5 restricts the outcome to one of 5 numbers, but the outcome is still random. The same would be true of between 1 and 2; although there are heavy restrictions, an unbiased machine will output one number randomly. If we simply go one limitation further, and restrict the randomly generated number to being, for example, between 1 and 1 (i.e. 1), is the number generated still random? Of course, the output can only be one number, so in that sense it is determined - but at the same time it is still determined randomly, just with hyper-restrictive limitations, for the generating machine remains is still selecting without bias.