Yes, it does. What you could do is note that for even n, [itex](-x)^n= x^n[/itex] and for odd n, [itex](-x)^n= -x^n[/itex] to extend from positive to negative numbers. Of course, you would still have to do x= 0 separately but sinced [itex]0^n= 0[/itex], that is easy. That only proves it for the power a positive integer but x any real number.
But, personally, I would consider that proof "overkill". Lograrithms are much more advanced than polynomials so I would expect to know the derivative of [itex]x^n[/itex] long before the derivative of logarithm.
Prove [itex](x^n)'= n x^{n-1}[/itex] for positive integer n by induction on n:
If n= 1, [itex]x^n= x[/itex] and its derivative is [itex]1= 1(x^0)[/itex].
Now, suppose [itex](x^k)'= k x^{k-1}[/itex] for some k. Then [itex]x^{k+1}= (x^k)(x)[/itex] so using the product rule,
[tex](x^{k+1})'= (x^k)'(x)+ (x^k)(x')= (kx^{k-1})x+ (x^k)(1)= kx^k+ x^k= (k+1)x^k[/tex].
You could then use the quotient rule to extend [itex](x^n)'= n x^{n-1}[/itex] to negative n.
But [itex]x^r[/itex] where r is an arbitrary rational or irrational number is only defined for x positive anyway so you can use the "logarithm" proof for those.