A question on wave-particle duality

rock.freak667
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Electrons are said to exhibit wave-particle duality because depending on the method of observation it acts as either a particle or wave.

But according to De Broglie waves: A particle of mass,m, moving with velocity,v, acts like a wave of wavelength,\lambda. Where \lambda = \frac{h}{mv}.
But if this is true, then why doesn't everything exhibit wave-particle duality?
 
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AFAIK everything does. as m increases \lambda is smaller.
 
Right, everything does, and that's why it has been argued that "wave/particle duality" is a kind of historical misnomer. The disunity was our own invention right from the start, so when you find unity in things, you only call it "duality" if you used to think they were different!
 
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If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!
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