A relation between photon and electron - need discussion

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The discussion centers on the relationship between photons and electrons, questioning whether photons can give rise to electrons. One viewpoint suggests that photons, when influenced by external forces disrupting their electromagnetic balance, can produce electron-positron pairs. Conversely, another perspective argues that it is electrons that can generate photons when excited. The conversation emphasizes the need for scientifically sound discussions and adherence to established physics principles, cautioning against speculative theories not supported by peer-reviewed research. Overall, the thread highlights the complexity of particle interactions while advocating for rigorous academic standards.
bpm_vns19
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Is it a photon that gives rise to an electron ?? Photon , in presence of any external force that disrupts its magnetic and electric field balance in space where E/B!= c causes production of a pair particle -- electron and positron .

I have done a lot work upon it .Want to know other's view upon it .
 
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No, it is not so easy.

Better to say that it is an electron that gives rise to a photon. Pushing an electron excites photonic degrees of freedom easily.
 
bpm_vns19 said:
Is it a photon that gives rise to an electron ?? Photon , in presence of any external force that disrupts its magnetic and electric field balance in space where E/B!= c causes production of a pair particle -- electron and positron .

I have done a lot work upon it .Want to know other's view upon it .

You mean something like this:

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[link deleted]
 
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That site was completely filled with crcakpottery.

Let me remind everyone of the PF rules:

Overly Speculative Posts:
One of the main goals of PF is to help students learn the current status of physics as practiced by the scientific community; accordingly, Physicsforums.com strives to maintain high standards of academic integrity. There are many open questions in physics, and we welcome discussion on those subjects provided the discussion remains intellectually sound. It is against our Posting Guidelines to discuss, in most of the PF forums or in blogs, new or non-mainstream theories or ideas that have not been published in professional peer-reviewed journals or are not part of current professional mainstream scientific discussion. Personal theories/Independent Research may be submitted to our Independent Research Forum, provided they meet our Independent Research Guidelines; Personal theories posted elsewhere will be deleted. Poorly formulated personal theories, unfounded challenges of mainstream science, and overt crackpottery will not be tolerated anywhere on the site. Linking to obviously "crank" or "crackpot" sites is prohibited.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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