- #1
dyn
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Hi.
If a function f is normalizable ,ie f→0 as | x | → infinity or r→ infinity then I presume the following surface integral f dS over infinite space is zero ?
But I thought about this again and it seems like a case of zero x infinity. The function is zero at the infinite surface but the area of the infinite surface is infinite. Is the surface integral zero ?
Thanks
If a function f is normalizable ,ie f→0 as | x | → infinity or r→ infinity then I presume the following surface integral f dS over infinite space is zero ?
But I thought about this again and it seems like a case of zero x infinity. The function is zero at the infinite surface but the area of the infinite surface is infinite. Is the surface integral zero ?
Thanks