[abstract algebra] Isomorphic group of units

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that the group of units of the integers modulo the product of two coprime integers, \( \mathbb{Z}_{nm}^\times \), is isomorphic to the direct sum of the groups of units of the integers modulo each integer, \( \mathbb{Z}_n^\times \) and \( \mathbb{Z}_m^\times \). The context is abstract algebra, specifically group theory.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to demonstrate the isomorphism by first establishing that the groups have the same number of elements using Euler's totient function. They express difficulty in constructing the isomorphism itself.
  • One participant suggests considering a specific function that maps elements from \( \mathbb{Z}_{nm}^\times \) to \( \mathbb{Z}_n^\times \oplus \mathbb{Z}_m^\times \) and discusses properties of this mapping, including surjectiveness and implications of the Chinese Remainder Theorem.
  • Another participant emphasizes the importance of guiding the original poster without providing a complete solution.

Discussion Status

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of adhering to forum guidelines that discourage providing complete solutions, emphasizing a collaborative learning environment.

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Homework Statement


Given that gcd(n,m)=1, prove that \mathbb Z_{nm}^\times = \mathbb Z_n^\times \oplus \mathbb Z_m^\times.

Homework Equations


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The Attempt at a Solution


I can prove both groups have the same amount of elements (using Euler's totient function), but I can't figure out how to prove the isomorphism. One way would be to construct the isomorphism, but I can't seem to find one.
 
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Perhaps consider function f: \mathbb Z_{nm}^\times \rightarrow \mathbb Z_n^\times \oplus \mathbb Z_m^\times such that f(a) = (a mod n, a mod m). Since if a \in \mathbb Z_{nm}^\times then a is relatively prime to mn, so there is an integer solution x,y to the equations ax +mny =1. Taking the equation, you can re-write it to mny = 1 - ax, which means ax is congruent 1 modulo m, and congruent 1 modulo n. So actually a has an inverse mod m and mod n (in this case x). So f maps units to units. You can prove surjectiveness by Chinese Remainder Theorem, and since sets are finite this would imply bijectivity.

/edit reworded slightly.
 
Last edited:
Thank you!
 
As a reminder to all homework helpers, we're supposed to help the student solve a problem, not to do it for them. Barre's post is a demonstration of exactly what not to do. Unfortunately, it's too late and the original poster has already received the complete solution to his homework problem. :frown:
 

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